Table of Contents
38th BPSC Pre Exam 12.04.1992 MCQs in English
| 1. Who built the Jantar Mantar? (a) Akbar (b) Shah Jahan (c) Shivaji (d) Maharaja Jai Singh Ans: (d) Explanation: Jantar Mantar was built in the 18th century by Maharaja Jai Singh II, the ruler of Jaipur. He had a deep interest in astronomy and constructed five observatories in Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Varanasi, and Mathura to ensure the accuracy of astronomical calculations. These observatories used large instruments to observe the positions of the sun, moon, planets, and stars. Jantar Mantar is a unique blend of modern astronomy and architecture and showcases India’s scientific thought and astronomical traditions. |
| 2. Whom did Mahatma Gandhi consider his political guru? (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Ans: (d) Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi considered Gopal Krishna Gokhale his political mentor. When Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915, he was unfamiliar with Indian politics. Gokhale, a senior Congress leader and moderate thinker, helped him understand the realities of Indian politics and society. Gandhi admired Gokhale’s disciplined, peaceful, and ethical leadership and stated that Gokhale taught him the path of truth and non-violence. Gokhale played a crucial role in shaping Gandhi’s political philosophy. |
| 3. When did the ‘Simon Commission’ first come to India? (a) In 1926 (b) In 1928 (c) In 1939 (d) In 1942 Ans: (b) Explanation: The Simon Commission was set up by the British government to review constitutional reforms and arrived in India on February 3, 1928. Its major criticism was the absence of any Indian member, despite claiming to safeguard Indian interests. The slogan “Simon Go Back” was raised in protest. Lala Lajpat Rai strongly opposed it in Lahore, where he was fatally injured in a police lathi charge. The opposition to the Commission heightened political awareness and intensified the demand for self-rule in India. |
| 4. In which year did the Congress Party pass the resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ (Complete Independence)? (a) In 1930 (b) In 1929 (c) In 1917 (d) In 1911 Ans: (b) Explanation: The resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ (Complete Independence) was passed in the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in 1929, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru. It was a declaration of full independence from British rule. Earlier, Congress demanded only Dominion Status, but after the Simon Commission episode and British indifference, the demand shifted to complete independence. January 26, 1930, was celebrated as Independence Day, marking the beginning of this tradition. This resolution was a revolutionary step in India’s freedom struggle. |
| 5. What is the year 1919 associated with in Indian history? (a) Change of capital from Calcutta to Delhi (b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (c) Partition of Bengal (d) Khilafat Movement Ans: (b) Explanation: On April 13, 1919, during Baisakhi, thousands of unarmed people gathered peacefully in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, to protest against the Rowlatt Act. On General Dyer’s orders, troops opened indiscriminate fire, killing hundreds and injuring thousands. This massacre caused widespread outrage and grief among Indians. It gave a new direction to the independence movement, and Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in response. The incident became a symbol of British brutality and drew mass support to the freedom struggle. |
| 6. Who composed the song ‘Vande Mataram’? (a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) Jaishankar Prasad Ans: (a) Explanation: ‘Vande Mataram’ was composed by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in the 1870s and published in his novel ‘Anandamath’ (1882). The song became a symbol of nationalist sentiment against British rule. In 1896, Rabindranath Tagore set it to music and presented it at a Congress session. After independence, the Indian government recognized the first two stanzas of the song as the national song. It served as a source of inspiration during the freedom struggle. |
| 7. Who led the movement for a separate state of Pakistan? (a) Aga Khan (b) Nawab Salimullah (c) Liaquat Ali Khan (d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah Ans: (d) Explanation: Muhammad Ali Jinnah presented the demand for Pakistan on behalf of the Muslim League in the 1940 Lahore Session, known as the Lahore Resolution. He argued that Muslims were a separate nation and needed an independent country, a concept known as the ‘Two-Nation Theory.’ Under his leadership, the League advanced the demand for partition, leading to the formation of Pakistan in 1947. |
| 8. When was the Indian National Congress founded? (a) In 1852 (b) In 1884 (c) In 1870 (d) In 1885 Ans: (d) Explanation: The Indian National Congress was founded on December 28, 1885, by a British officer, A. O. Hume. The first session had 72 delegates and was presided over by Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee. Initially, the Congress demanded Indian participation in governance but later became the main political platform for the freedom struggle, leading mass movements against colonial rule. |
| 9. Which famous Indian leader was known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi’? (a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Abul Kalam Azad (c) Subhas Chandra Bose (d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah Ans: (a) Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi’ due to his strong adherence to Gandhian values and his origin from the North-West Frontier Province. He founded the ‘Khudai Khidmatgar’ movement, which was non-violent and service-oriented. He supported a united India and opposed partition. After independence, he was imprisoned multiple times in Pakistan. His life exemplified communal harmony and non-violence. |
| 10. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain during World War II? (a) Clement Attlee (b) Anthony Eden (c) Winston Churchill (d) Harold Wilson Ans: (c) Explanation: Winston Churchill was the Prime Minister of Britain during World War II. He assumed office in 1940 after Neville Chamberlain’s resignation and led Britain through the decisive war against Germany. His oratory and leadership inspired both the British people and the Allied forces. After the war, he lost the 1945 general elections, and Clement Attlee became Prime Minister. Churchill was later awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature. |
| 11. Tipu Sultan made which place his capital? (a) Srirangapatnam (b) Mysore (c) Bangalore (d) Coimbatore Ans: (a) Explanation: Tipu Sultan made Srirangapatnam (now in Karnataka) his capital. Located on the banks of the Kaveri River, it was considered strategically secure. He built a strong fort and palace there and planned many battles against the British from this location. Tipu Sultan died here in 1799 during the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. The city was the political, economic, and military center of his reign. |
| 12. Who is the author of “India Wins Freedom”? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Abul Kalam Azad (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Nayantara Sahgal Ans: (b) Explanation: “India Wins Freedom” is the autobiography of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, one of the prominent leaders of the Indian freedom struggle. The book offers in-depth insights into major events of the independence movement, the perspectives of key leaders, and the role of the Muslim community. Azad describes his experiences with leaders like Gandhi, Nehru, and Jinnah, offering an insider’s view of history. |
| 13. Who is the author of the book “The Life Divine”? (a) S. Radhakrishnan (b) Mulk Raj Anand (c) Aurobindo Ghosh (d) Swami Vivekananda Ans: (c) Explanation: “The Life Divine” is a major work by the great thinker and yogi Sri Aurobindo Ghosh. The book is based on the synthesis of Vedanta philosophy and modern science. It explores the divinity of human life, spiritual evolution, and the universal presence of God. Written in Pondicherry, this philosophical text remains a cornerstone of Indian spiritual literature. |
| 14. When was Queen Victoria proclaimed Empress of India? (a) In 1858 (b) In 1876 (c) In 1877 (d) In 1885 Ans: (c) Explanation: Queen Victoria was given the title “Empress of India” on January 1, 1877, during the Delhi Durbar organized by Lord Lytton. Although the British Crown had taken over from the East India Company in 1858, the formal title was conferred in 1877 to symbolize imperial authority in India. |
| 15. The Gandhara style of art flourished during the time of: (a) Kushans (b) Guptas (c) Akbar (d) Mauryas Ans: (a) Explanation: The Gandhara art style flourished primarily during the Kushan period, especially under Kanishka (1st–2nd century CE). It is known for blending Greco-Roman and Indian art forms. Buddha statues from this style feature deep robes, curly hair, and realistic expressions. The main centers of Gandhara art were in present-day Pakistan and Afghanistan, such as Taxila and Peshawar. |
| 16. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? (a) Bhimsen Joshi – Classical Vocal (b) Allarakha – Tabla (c) Debu Chaudhuri – Sitar (d) M. S. Subbulakshmi – Flute Ans: (d) Explanation: M. S. Subbulakshmi was a renowned Carnatic classical singer, not a flute player. The well-known flutist is Pt. Hariprasad Chaurasia. The other pairs are correct: Bhimsen Joshi – Hindustani classical vocalist, Allarakha – tabla player, Debu Chaudhuri – sitar maestro. |
| 17. Which of the following is the correct match of states and their folk dances? (a) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d (b) 2b, 2a, 3c, 4d (c) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c (d) 1b, 2d, 3b, 4a Ans: (c) Explanation: Andhra Pradesh – Burra Katha, Assam – Bihu, Himachal Pradesh – Nati, Rajasthan – Ghoomar. Thus, option (C) correctly matches the states with their folk dances: 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c. This question is important for understanding Indian folk culture. |
| 18. Which of the following statements is false? (a) USA has a federal system (b) India has both federal and unitary features (c) France has a federal system (d) In Pakistan, the Prime Minister is elected by the people Ans: (c) Explanation: France follows a unitary system, not a federal one. The USA has a federal system, India has both federal and unitary features, and in Pakistan, the Prime Minister is elected by members of the Parliament, not directly by the public. Hence, option (C) is incorrect. |
| 19. Which statement about the Vice President of India is false? (a) Must be at least 35 years old (b) Is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha (c) Is elected by the President (d) The first Vice President was S. Radhakrishnan Ans: (c) Explanation: The Vice President of India is not elected by the President. He is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. The other statements are true: minimum age is 35, he chairs the Rajya Sabha, and the first Vice President was Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. |
| 20. Once a Finance Bill is passed by Lok Sabha, how long can Rajya Sabha hold it at most? (a) 6 months (b) 4 months (c) 1 month (d) 14 days Ans: (d) Explanation: As per Article 110 of the Constitution, a Finance Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Once passed, Rajya Sabha can hold it for a maximum of 14 days. It may suggest amendments, but Lok Sabha has the final say on accepting or rejecting them. |
| 21. A bill to amend the Indian Constitution can be introduced in – (a) Only in Lok Sabha (b) Only in Rajya Sabha (c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha (d) Supreme Court of India Ans: (c) Explanation: According to Article 368, a constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament — Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. It is part of the legislative process, not the judiciary. Hence, (C) is correct. |
| 22. Which of the following High Courts has jurisdiction over more than one state/UT? (a) Allahabad (b) Delhi (c) Guwahati (d) Maharashtra Ans: (c) Explanation: The Guwahati High Court serves multiple northeastern states — Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, and Nagaland. It has benches in different states. |
| 23. If there is a dispute in the election of the President of India, it is referred to – (a) Secretary General of India (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court of India (d) None of these Ans: (c) Explanation: Article 71 of the Constitution states that such disputes are decided exclusively by the Supreme Court. Its decision is final. |
| 24. The Constitution of India does not give the President the power to – (a) Appoint the Prime Minister (b) Appoint State Chief Ministers (c) Be Supreme Commander of Armed Forces (d) Declare Emergency Ans: (b) Explanation: The Governor of a state appoints the Chief Minister, not the President. The President has the remaining powers. |
| 25. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution was in – (a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) 1955 (d) 1958 Ans: (b) Explanation: The First Amendment Act, 1951 clarified certain constitutional provisions, resolved property rights issues, and introduced the Ninth Schedule. |
| 26. Sikkim became a state of India under which Constitutional Amendment? (a) 30th Amendment (b) 32nd Amendment (c) 35th Amendment (d) 42nd Amendment Ans: (c) Explanation: The 35th Amendment (1974) made Sikkim an Associate State. It became a full state (22nd) via the 36th Amendment in 1975. |
| 27. What was the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court of India (earlier)? (a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 9 Ans: (a) Explanation: While the current strength is 34 judges (as of 2019), earlier it was 24. The question seems to refer to the earlier sanctioned strength. |
| 28. Who was the chairman of the committee that recommended Panchayati Raj in India? (a) Balwant Rai Mehta (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Justice Krishna Iyer (d) Jagjivan Ram Ans: (a) Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. |
| 29. What is a key feature of the Panchayati Raj system? (a) It has three types of governments (b) It aims to deliver social and economic justice to villages (c) MPs are members of Zila Parishads (d) None of these Ans: (b) Explanation: The primary aim is to empower rural areas through social and economic justice, as per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment. |
| 30. The point on Earth’s surface closest to the center of the Earth is at – (a) North Pole (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Equator Ans: (d) Explanation: Due to Earth’s equatorial bulge, locations near the Equator are closer to Earth’s center (e.g., Mount Chimborazo in Ecuador). |
| 31. The “Ozone Layer” refers to – (a) Atmospheric layer over Antarctica (b) Recent discovery on Saturn (c) Layer 10–20 km below Earth’s surface (d) Layer 15–20 km above Earth’s surface Ans: (d) Explanation: The ozone layer lies in the stratosphere, about 15–35 km above Earth, and absorbs harmful UV rays. |
| 32. How long does sunlight take to reach Earth? (a) 8 seconds (b) 1 minute (c) 8 minutes (d) 24 minutes Ans: (c) Explanation: Light from the Sun takes about 8 minutes 20 seconds to reach Earth, traveling approximately 149.6 million km. |
| 33. The distance between two rails of “Broad Gauge” in India is – (a) 6½ feet (b) 5½ feet (c) 5 feet (d) 4½ feet Ans: (a) Explanation: Broad gauge in India is 1.676 meters (5 ft 6 in), commonly used for major railways and heavy freight. |
| 34. The Lakshadweep islands are located – (a) Southwest of India (b) South India (c) Southeast India (d) Near West Bengal Ans: (a) Explanation: Lakshadweep is located in the Arabian Sea, southwest of Kerala, and is India’s smallest Union Territory. |
| 35. The Seine River flows through which city? (a) London (b) Paris (c) Rome (d) Frankfurt Ans: (b) Explanation: The Seine is a major river in France and flows through Paris, significantly contributing to the city’s beauty. |
| 36. The Gobi Desert is located in – (a) China (b) West Africa (c) Southern Australia (d) South America Ans: (a) Explanation: The Gobi Desert spans Mongolia and northern China. It is one of the coldest deserts in the world. |
| 37. The Suez Canal connects – (a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea and Caspian Sea (c) Red Sea and Indian Ocean (d) None of these Ans: (a) Explanation: The Suez Canal in Egypt connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea and is vital for global trade. |
| 38. The largest oil-exporting country is – (a) Algeria (b) Iran (c) Nigeria (d) Saudi Arabia Ans: (d) Explanation: Saudi Arabia is the world’s largest crude oil exporter and a key member of OPEC. |
| 39. The principal source of Indian government revenue is – (a) Direct Taxes (b) Indirect Taxes (c) Deficit Financing (d) Borrowing from RBI Ans: (b) Explanation: The main revenue source is indirect taxes (like GST, customs, excise), which are easier to collect and broadly applicable. |
| 40. Which Five-Year Plan period is incorrectly matched? (a) 1st: 1951–56 (b) 2nd: 1956–61 (c) 3rd: 1961–66 (d) 4th: 1966–71 Ans: (d) Explanation: The 4th Plan was from 1969 to 1974. The period from 1966–69 was a Plan Holiday due to economic issues. |
| 41. Albert Einstein is famous for – (a) Explanation of the atomic structure of hydrogen (b) Photoelectric effect (c) Building the first nuclear reactor (d) Prediction of the existence of neutrons Ans: (b) Explanation: Albert Einstein is particularly known for his explanation of the photoelectric effect, for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921. This discovery was a milestone in the development of quantum theory and laid the foundation for technologies like the photoelectric cell. His theory of relativity was also revolutionary. |
| 42. Nicolas Copernicus is famous for – (a) Invention of the telescope (b) Stating that planets revolve around the Sun (c) Discovery of calculus (d) Studying human anatomy through surgery Ans: (b) Explanation: Nicolas Copernicus was a famous astronomer who proposed the heliocentric theory, stating that all planets including Earth revolve around the Sun. This challenged the then-prevalent geocentric theory and marked a revolution in astronomy. |
| 43. Stainless steel is an alloy of – (a) Iron and copper (b) Iron and zinc (c) Iron and chromium (d) Iron and graphite Ans: (c) Explanation: Stainless steel is primarily an alloy of iron with chromium (usually 10.5% or more), making it corrosion-resistant. Sometimes nickel and carbon are also added. It is widely used in utensils and industries. |
| 44. An example of a physical change is – (a) Silver utensils turning black in air (b) Burning of a candle (c) Curdling of milk (d) Dissolving sugar in water Ans: (d) Explanation: Physical changes do not alter the chemical composition of a substance. Dissolving sugar in water is a physical change as no new substance is formed, only a state change. The other examples are chemical changes. |
| 45. No reaction occurs when steam is passed over – (a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Carbon (d) Iron Ans: (b) Explanation: When steam contacts various elements, they usually react. But copper is relatively inert and does not chemically react with steam, making it suitable for pipes and instruments. |
| 46. The approximate weight of an adult Indian elephant is – (a) 500 kg (b) 1000 kg (c) 5000 kg (d) 10000 kg Ans: (c) Explanation: An adult Indian elephant typically weighs between 4000–6000 kg, with males being heavier. This information is crucial in wildlife management and logistics. |
| 47. Pasteurization’ is a process in which – (a) Milk is kept at a very low temperature for 24 hours (b) Milk is heated for 8 hours (c) Milk is heated briefly and then rapidly cooled (d) None of these Ans: (c) Explanation: Pasteurization is a process used to destroy harmful microorganisms in milk by heating it to about 72°C for 15-20 seconds and then quickly cooling it to 4°C. This method was developed by Louis Pasteur. |
| 48. Amphibia’ refers to – (a) Very fast boats (b) Animals that can live only in water (c) Animals that can live only on land (d) Animals that can live both on land and in water Ans: (d) Explanation: The word ‘Amphibia’ comes from Greek ‘amphi’ (both) and ‘bios’ (life), referring to animals like frogs that live both in water and on land. |
| 49. Which statement is NOT true about malaria? (a) It is caused by a parasitic insect (b) It is spread by mosquitoes (c) It mostly occurs in transitional regions (d) Chloroquine is used for treatment Ans: (c) Explanation: Malaria is an infectious disease caused by Plasmodium parasite and spread by female Anopheles mosquitoes. It is common in tropical and subtropical regions, not specifically transitional ones. |
| 50. Who is known as the father of India’s nuclear program? (a) S. N. Bose (b) H. J. Bhabha (c) S. Chandrasekhar (d) S. S. Bhatnagar Ans: (b) Explanation: Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha is regarded as the father of India’s nuclear program. He established the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre and laid the foundation of India’s atomic policy. |
| 51. Credit for research and development in space science goes to – (a) S. S. Bhatnagar (b) V. Sarabhai (c) S. Z. Qasim (d) C. V. Raman Ans: (b) Explanation: Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is credited with founding modern space research in India. He played a key role in establishing ISRO and is known as the father of India’s space program. |
| 52. Fast Breeder Reactor produces electricity through – (a) Fusion process (b) With the help of solar cells (c) By regenerating and burning fissile material (d) By using hard water as a purifier Ans: (c) Explanation: Fast Breeder Reactors not only generate energy but also regenerate fuel like plutonium. They recycle spent fuel, enhancing energy efficiency. |
| 53. Bihar is located between the following longitudes – (a) Approximately 84° to 88° East (b) Approximately 80° to 84° East (c) Approximately 80° to 88° East (d) None of these Ans: (a) Explanation: Bihar lies between 83°19′ and 88°17′ east longitude. Hence, option (A) is most appropriate. |
| 54. The literacy rate in Bihar is approximately – (a) 0.3 (b) 0.34 (c) 0.38 (d) 0.45 Ans: (d) Explanation: According to the 1991 census, Bihar’s literacy rate was around 45%, among the lowest in India, with much higher literacy among males than females. |
| 55. Bihar ranks in population in India as – (a) Highest (b) Second highest (c) Third highest (d) Fourth highest Ans: (b) Explanation: According to the 1991 census, Bihar had the second-highest population in India after Uttar Pradesh. It also had the highest population density. |
| 56. Munda tribes are primarily found in – (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Bihar Ans: (d) Explanation: Munda tribes mainly reside in Jharkhand, southern Bihar, Odisha, and border areas of West Bengal. They are an ancient tribal community speaking the Munda language. |
| 57. In which of the following states is iron ore NOT found? (a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Odisha (d) Punjab Ans: (d) Explanation: Punjab does not have iron ore deposits, while Bihar (now Jharkhand), Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha are major producers. |
| 58. Why was Switzerland’s ‘Davos’ in the news in early 1992? (a) Hosting the World Economic Forum (b) Meeting of foreign ministers (c) Winter Olympic display (d) Hosting India Week Ans: (a) Explanation: Davos hosts the annual World Economic Forum in January, where global leaders discuss economic issues. In 1992, the forum was again held in Davos. |
| 59. Where was the first direct meeting between Israel and the PLO held? (a) Washington (b) Moscow (c) Madrid (d) Lisbon Ans: (c) Explanation: The first direct meeting between Israel and the PLO was held in Madrid, Spain, in 1991, known as the Madrid Conference, with U.S. and Soviet mediation. |
| 60. Who received the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize in 1991? (a) Kurt Waldheim (b) Chancellor Kohl (c) Sam Nujoma (d) Nelson Mandela Ans: (d) Explanation: Nelson Mandela received the Indira Gandhi Prize in 1991 for his fight against apartheid and contribution to peace and human rights. |
| 61. Recently, famous film director ‘Satyajit Ray’ received which award? (a) Dadasaheb Phalke Award (b) Best Indian Film Award (c) Special Lifetime Achievement ‘Oscar’ Award (d) Padma Vibhushan Ans: (c) Explanation: In 1992, Satyajit Ray received the Honorary Oscar for his exceptional contribution to world cinema. He was the first Indian director to receive it. |
| 62. Why was J.K.F. in the news in early 1992? (a) For kidnapping an Indian diplomat (b) For planting a bomb in the Indian Embassy (c) For protests in Islamabad (d) For attempting to cross POK Ans: (d) Explanation: Jammu Kashmir Front (J.K.F.) made headlines in 1992 for attempting to cross the LoC from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, asserting Indian sovereignty over Kashmir. |
| 63. Where did the massacre in Bihar occur recently, in which around 40 people were killed? (a) Near Gaya (b) Near Patna (c) Near Ranchi (d) Near Bhagalpur Ans: (a) Explanation: The massacre occurred near Gaya in 1992 due to caste-based violence and social inequality. Around 40 people were killed. |
| 64. How many seats did BJP win in the Punjab Assembly elections? (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 3 Ans: (d) Explanation: In the 1992 Punjab Assembly elections, the BJP won only 3 seats due to low voter turnout and the election boycott by major parties. |
| 65. In which Indian state is the disease ‘Kala-azar’ currently spreading? (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Odisha (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans: (b) Explanation: Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) mainly spreads in Bihar, especially in the northern regions. It is transmitted by sand flies and affects the liver and spleen. The government has run special campaigns to control it. Health-related questions like this are frequently asked. |
| 66. The fiscal deficit for the year 1992-93 was approximately – (a) ₹500 crore (b) ₹1000 crore (c) ₹5000 crore (d) ₹20,000 crore Ans: (d) Explanation: India’s fiscal deficit in 1992–93 was about ₹20,000 crore, high relative to the GDP. This was during the early phase of economic liberalization and reform, which put pressure on the budget. |
| 67. Ustad Zia Fariduddin Dagar was recently in the news for – (a) Winning the Sangeet Natak Academy Award (b) Indira Priyadarshini Award (c) Performance at the United Nations (d) Performance at Republic Day ceremony Ans: (d) Explanation: Ustad Zia Fariduddin Dagar was a renowned Dhrupad classical singer. He was in the news in 1992 for his performance at the Republic Day ceremony, highlighting his role in preserving classical music. |
| 68. India declared 1991 as the year of – (a) Save Environment Year (b) Visit India Year (c) Girl Child Year (d) Work for All Year Ans: (c) Explanation: The Government of India declared 1991 as “Girl Child Year” to raise awareness and improve education and healthcare for girls, addressing gender inequality and poor child sex ratio. |
| 69. Who received the Bharat Ratna in the 1992 Republic Day awards? (a) Only J.R.D. Tata (b) Only Rajiv Gandhi (c) Only Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Both Tata and Bose Ans: (d) Explanation: In 1992, both J.R.D. Tata (industry and aviation) and Subhash Chandra Bose (freedom struggle) were posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna. |
| 70. Who is the Chairman of the University Grants Commission? (a) Prof. Yash Pal (b) Prof. Rajni Kothari (c) Prof. K.N. Khanna (d) None of these Ans: (a) Explanation: Prof. Yash Pal was the UGC Chairman in the early 1990s. A renowned physicist and educator, he emphasized research and innovation in higher education. |
| 71. Who received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1990? (a) Raj Kapoor (b) Satyajit Ray (c) Ashok Kumar (d) A. Nageswara Rao Ans: (c) Explanation: The 1990 Dadasaheb Phalke Award was given to veteran actor Ashok Kumar for his significant contribution to early Indian cinema. He was popularly known as “Dadamuni.” |
| 72. Which of the following journalists received the Magsaysay Award? (a) Khushwant Singh (b) Arun Shourie (c) Dharamveer Bharati (d) Kamleshwar Ans: (b) Explanation: Arun Shourie won the 1982 Ramon Magsaysay Award for investigative journalism. He wrote impactful articles on corruption while working with the Indian Express. |
| 73. Who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1991? (a) Erwin Neher (b) Bert Sakmann (c) Richard Ernst (d) Pierre-Gilles de Gennes Ans: (c) Explanation: Richard R. Ernst received the 1991 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for developing high-sensitivity NMR spectroscopy, which revolutionized chemical structure analysis. |
| 74. In the 1992–93 Railway Budget, the estimated increase in additional revenue was approximately – (a) ₹130 crore (b) ₹2.90 crore (c) ₹13,000 crore (d) ₹20,000 crore Ans: (a) Explanation: The Railway Budget of 1992–93 estimated an additional income of ₹130 crore, mainly from freight, fare hikes, and charges, to make Indian Railways more self-sustaining. |
| 75. Who won the Davis Cup in 1991? (a) Germany (b) France (c) Sweden (d) United States Ans: (b) Explanation: France won the 1991 Davis Cup by defeating the USA. This was a major achievement, being their second title after a 59-year gap. |
| 76. Which statement about the recent India-Australia cricket series is correct? (a) Ravi Shastri scored a century in the fifth Test (b) Ravi Shastri scored a double century in the third Test (c) Kapil Dev scored a century in the final Test (d) Vengsarkar scored a century in the final Test Ans: (b) Explanation: During the 1991–92 Australia tour, Ravi Shastri scored a double century (206 runs) in the third Test at Sydney, considered one of India’s best overseas batting performances. |
| 77. Boutros Boutros-Ghali, the new UN Secretary-General, is from which country? (a) Cuba (b) Zimbabwe (c) Nigeria (d) Egypt Ans: (d) Explanation: Boutros Boutros-Ghali from Egypt became the UN Secretary-General in 1992, the first African and Arab to hold the post. He contributed to diplomacy and peacekeeping in global conflicts. |
| 78. Which was the first Soviet republic to declare independence? (a) Russia (b) Estonia (c) Lithuania (d) Ukraine Ans: (c) Explanation: Lithuania declared independence from the Soviet Union on March 11, 1990, becoming the first republic to do so and initiating the USSR’s dissolution. |
| 79. The main purpose of starting the SAARC movement was – (a) Non-intervention (b) Military alliance (c) Scientific and cultural exchange (d) Regional cooperation Ans: (d) Explanation: SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) was founded in 1985 to promote economic, social, cultural, and technical cooperation among South Asian nations. |
| 80. The religious order founded by Mother Teresa is called – (a) Misters of Charity (b) Missionaries of Charity (c) Organization of Love (d) Charity for All Ans: (b) Explanation: Mother Teresa founded “Missionaries of Charity” in 1950 to serve the poor, sick, and dying. It started in Kolkata and later expanded worldwide. She was honored with the Nobel Peace Prize and Bharat Ratna. |
| 81. What is the main feature of Panchsheel? (a) Non-alignment (b) Economic Cooperation and Development (c) Cultural Relations (d) Friendship and Peaceful Coexistence among Nations Ans: (d) Explanation: The Panchsheel principles, agreed upon by India (Nehru) and China (Chou En-lai) in 1954, emphasize mutual respect, non-aggression, and peaceful coexistence among nations. |
| 82. Bachendri Pal is a well-known name in the field of – (a) Sports (b) Music (c) Dance (d) Mountaineering Ans: (d) Explanation: Bachendri Pal was the first Indian woman to climb Mount Everest in 1984. She was awarded the Padma Shri and is considered a pioneer in Indian mountaineering. |
| 83. Who gave the slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan”? (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Devi Lal (d) Morarji Desai Ans: (a) Explanation: The famous slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan” was given by Lal Bahadur Shastri during the 1965 India-Pakistan war to boost morale among soldiers and farmers. |
| 84. Which famous Indian is known as ‘Gurudev’? (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) C. Rajagopalachari (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) B.R. Ambedkar Ans: (a) Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore, known as ‘Gurudev’, was a Nobel laureate poet, philosopher, and founder of Visva-Bharati University. He composed India’s national anthem “Jana Gana Mana.” |
| 85. “Operation Blackboard” is a government scheme for – (a) Combating extremism in Punjab (b) Improving national school education programme (c) Improving girls’ education (d) Adult literacy Ans: (b) Explanation: Launched in 1987, “Operation Blackboard” aimed to provide essential educational infrastructure—like blackboards, teaching materials, and teachers—in all primary schools, as part of the National Policy on Education, 1986. |
| 86. What is the ‘Chipko Movement’? (a) Movement to end untouchability (b) Movement to save trees (c) Campaign for milk production (d) None of these Ans: (b) Explanation: The Chipko Movement began in 1973 in Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh). Led by environmentalists like Sunderlal Bahuguna and Gaura Devi, villagers—especially women—hugged trees to prevent them from being cut down. It is regarded as a historic environmental protection movement. |
| 87. What is ‘Esperanto’? (a) A mountain in Latin America (b) A port city in Spain (c) A sports name (d) An artificial language created as a world language Ans: (d) Explanation: Esperanto is a constructed language developed in the late 19th century by L. L. Zamenhof to promote international communication. It combines simple grammar and vocabulary from various languages and is not linked to any one nation. |
| 88. “The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian” is written by – (a) Nirad C. Chaudhuri (b) Khushwant Singh (c) Kamala Das (d) Balwant Gargi Ans: (a) Explanation: This autobiography by Nirad C. Chaudhuri, published in 1951, explores Indian society, culture, politics, and British colonialism. It is considered a significant work in Indian English literature. |
| 89. After Hindi, which language is spoken by the second-largest number of people in India? (a) Marathi (b) Tamil (c) Telugu (d) Urdu Ans: (c) Explanation: Telugu is the second most spoken language in India after Hindi, mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. It is a major Dravidian language with millions of native speakers. |
| 90. The principal languages spoken in Switzerland are – (a) Only German (b) Only French (c) German and French only (d) English, French, and Italian Ans: (c) Explanation: Switzerland has four national languages—German, French, Italian, and Romansh. German and French are the most widely spoken among them. |
| 91. The working languages of UNESCO are – (a) Only French (b) Only English (c) German and French only (d) German, French, and Russian Ans: (d) Explanation: UNESCO has six official languages: English, French, Spanish, Arabic, Russian, and Chinese. Among them, French and English are the main working languages. Option (D) includes two official languages, though not complete. |
| 92. Which two American citizens born in India won the Nobel Prize in science? (a) Hargobind Khorana and C.V. Raman (b) S. Chandrasekhar and C.V. Raman (c) C.V. Raman and S.N. Bose (d) Hargobind Khorana and S. Chandrasekhar Ans: (d) Explanation: Hargobind Khorana (born in Punjab) won the Nobel Prize in 1968 for genetic code research, and Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar (born in Lahore) won in 1983 for physics. Both were India-born American citizens recognized globally for their scientific contributions. |
| 93. The Kalinga Prize is awarded for – (a) Best film of the year (b) Popularizing science (c) Advancement of cultural understanding (d) Excellence in sports Ans: (b) Explanation: The Kalinga Prize, established in 1951 by Biju Patnaik and awarded by UNESCO, honors writers and communicators who help popularize science among the public. |
| 94. Scientist Ivan Pavlov is known for his work in – (a) Physics (b) Mathematics (c) Chemistry (d) Experimental psychology Ans: (d) Explanation: Ivan Pavlov, a Russian scientist, is known for his “conditioning theory” in experimental psychology. His dog experiments demonstrated how behavior could be conditioned, forming a foundation for modern psychology. |
| 95. The Thomas Cup is awarded in which sport? (a) Tennis (b) Football (c) Golf (d) Badminton Ans: (d) Explanation: The Thomas Cup is the world men’s team championship in badminton, first held in 1949. It is one of the most prestigious international tournaments in the sport. |
| 96. The first Asian Games were held in – (a) Beijing (b) Tokyo (c) New Delhi (d) Colombo Ans: (c) Explanation: The inaugural Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951. Eleven countries participated, and India won the highest number of medals. The event was inaugurated by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. |
| 97. The largest stadium in the world is located in – (a) Brazil (b) Czechoslovakia (c) Germany (d) United States of America Ans: (d) Explanation: Although the “Rungrado Stadium” in North Korea is the world’s largest by capacity, the USA’s “Michigan Stadium” is also among the largest. In older references, “Yale Stadium” and “Rose Bowl” in the USA were also considered the biggest. |
| 98. Prakash Padukone is famous in the field of – (a) Badminton (b) Hockey (c) Football (d) Tennis Ans: (a) Explanation: Prakash Padukone is a renowned Indian badminton player. He won the All England Badminton Championship in 1980 and helped bring international recognition to Indian badminton. |
| 99. The Durand Cup is associated with which sport? (a) Cricket (b) Football (c) Hockey (d) Table Tennis Ans: (b) Explanation: The Durand Cup, started in 1888, is India’s oldest football tournament and the third-oldest in the world. Initially played by military teams, it now includes major national football clubs. |
| 100. Limba Ram gained international fame in which sport? (a) Archery (b) Swimming (c) Table Tennis (d) Lawn Tennis Ans: (a) Explanation: Limba Ram is a prominent Indian archer who represented India at the Asian and Olympic levels in the early 1990s. He received the Arjuna Award and symbolizes tribal representation and excellence in Indian archery. |
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