Table of Contents
38th BPSC Pre Exam 24.07.1994 MCQs in English
| 1. The Indus Valley Civilization belongs to which of the following periods? (a) Historical Period (b) Prehistoric Period (c) Post-historic Period (d) Proto-historic Period Ans: (d) Explanation: The Indus Valley Civilization is considered part of the Proto-historic era. This period is characterized by the use of a script that has not yet been fully deciphered. The Indus script was pictographic and remains unreadable. Hence, it is neither fully prehistoric nor fully historic. The civilization is dated approximately from 2500 BCE to 1750 BCE, during which advanced urban planning, trade, metallurgy, and drainage systems were developed. Thus, it is classified under the Proto-historic period. |
| 2. The period from 800 to 600 BCE is associated with which era? (a) Brahmana Period (b) Sutra Period (c) Ramayana Period (d) Mahabharata Period Ans: (b) Explanation: The period from 800 to 600 BCE is known as the Sutra Period in Indian history. This phase followed the composition of Vedic literature and involved the codification of rituals into brief formulas or “sutras”. Important texts like the Shrauta Sutras, Grihya Sutras, and Dharma Sutras were written during this time, covering rituals, social norms, and lifestyle practices. It marked a systematic and classified development of Vedic traditions and also gave rise to the early form of the Upanishads. |
| 3. Why is Boghazkoi significant? (a) Because inscriptions found there mention Vedic deities (b) Trade center between Central Asia and Tibet (c) The original Vedic text was composed there (d) None of the above Ans: (a) Explanation: Boghazkoi, located in present-day Turkey, is an archaeological site associated with the Hittite civilization. Inscriptions found here mention Vedic deities such as Indra, Varuna, Mitra, and Nasatya (Ashwini Kumaras), showing similarities between Indian and West Asian religious beliefs. This suggests cultural and religious connections and possibly the spread of Indo-Aryan people from Central Asia to the Indian subcontinent. These inscriptions highlight the global influence and recognition of Vedic culture, making Boghazkoi historically significant. |
| 4. In which text is the Gayatri Mantra found? (a) Upanishads (b) Bhagavad Gita (c) Rigveda (d) Yajurveda Ans: (c) Explanation: The Gayatri Mantra is one of the most revered mantras in the Vedas. It is found in the Rigveda, Mandala 3, Sukta 62, and was composed by sage Vishwamitra. The mantra is dedicated to the Sun God (Savita): “Om Bhur Bhuvaḥ Swaḥ, Tat Savitur Vareṇyaṃ, Bhargo Devasya Dhīmahi, Dhiyo Yo Naḥ Prachodayāt.” It means: “We meditate on the divine light of the Sun, may it inspire our intellect.” This mantra symbolizes spiritual awakening and cosmic consciousness and is still widely chanted in Hindu rituals. |
| 5. Why was Uraiyur famous during the Sangam Age? (a) Center for spice trade (b) Center for cotton trade (c) Major center for foreign trade (d) Center for internal trade Ans: (b) Explanation: Uraiyur was a major city in ancient Tamil Nadu during the Sangam Age and was a key trade hub. It served as a significant capital for the Chera, Chola, and Pandya dynasties. The city was especially renowned for its cotton trade. High-quality cotton produced here was exported both domestically and internationally. Sangam literature portrays Uraiyur as a culturally rich and economically prosperous city with a high standard of living. Its importance in the cotton trade made it a major commercial center of that era. |
| 6. Who was the founder of the Ajivika sect? (a) Upali (b) Anand (c) Rahulbhadra (d) Makkhali Gosala Ans: (d) Explanation: The Ajivika sect was an important Shramana tradition of ancient India, founded by Makkhali Gosala. He was a contemporary of Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, and initially his disciple. Due to ideological differences, Gosala separated and established the Ajivika tradition. Ajivikas believed in strict determinism (fatalism), according to which the fate of every living being is pre-decided and cannot be altered. The sect emphasized extreme asceticism and discipline, and followed a non-theistic philosophy. Mauryan emperor Bindusara is believed to have followed this sect. Over time, the Ajivikas declined due to the rising influence of Buddhism and Jainism. |
| 7. Who greatly contributed to the growth of the Bhagavata tradition? (a) Persians (b) Indo-Greeks (c) Kushans (d) Guptas Ans: (d) Explanation: The Bhagavata tradition, centered on devotion to Lord Vishnu and his avatar Krishna, flourished under the Gupta Empire (c. 320–550 CE). Gupta rulers such as Chandragupta I and Samudragupta promoted Vaishnavism through inscriptions and coinage bearing images of Vishnu. This era saw the popularization of devotional texts like the Bhagavad Gita and the Puranas, which elevated devotion (bhakti) above ritualism. The Guptas gave royal patronage to this movement, leading to its significant expansion. Thus, the Gupta period was crucial in shaping the Bhagavata sect. |
| 8. Which inscription proves Chandragupta Maurya’s influence in Western India? (a) Kalinga Inscription (b) Ashoka’s Girnar Inscription (c) Rudradaman’s Junagadh Inscription (d) Ashoka’s Sopara Inscription Ans: (c) Explanation: The Junagadh Inscription of Rudradaman (150 CE), located in Gujarat, refers to the repair of a dam (Lake Sudarshan) originally constructed during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. This inscription, written in Sanskrit, is one of the earliest of its kind. It confirms that Chandragupta’s administrative and infrastructural influence extended into western India, particularly the Saurashtra region. The reference to the dam highlights the continuity of Mauryan infrastructure and administration and affirms the empire’s western reach. Rudradaman, a Saka ruler, later restored the dam, linking both Maurya and Saka contributions to the site. |
| 9. Which is the only pillar inscription where Ashoka refers to himself as the emperor of Magadha? (a) Maski Minor Edict (b) Rumindei Pillar (c) Queen’s Pillar (Rani Stambh) (d) Bhanu Pillar Ans: (a) Explanation: In most of Ashoka’s inscriptions, he is referred to as “Devanampiya Piyadasi” (Beloved of the Gods, Pleasant to See), which initially left uncertainty about his identity. The Maski Edict, found in Karnataka, explicitly mentions “Devanampiya Piyadasi Raja Ashoka,” directly identifying him as Emperor Ashoka of Magadha. This inscription was key in confirming that Piyadasi and Ashoka were the same person. It also marked the first time Ashoka referred to himself by name and mentioned Magadha, thus playing a critical role in reconstructing his historical identity. |
| 10. Which source remains silent on ancient Indian trade routes? (a) Sangam Literature (b) Milind Panha (c) Jataka Tales (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation: Sangam literature, Milind Panha, and Jataka tales provide valuable insights into the religious, philosophical, and social life of ancient India. Sangam texts portray the lifestyle and culture of ancient Tamil society. Milind Panha is a dialogue between the Greek king Menander and Buddhist monk Nagasena. Jataka stories recount the previous births of the Buddha, offering moral lessons. However, none of these texts provide concrete or detailed information about trade routes or commercial networks. Therefore, all three are considered silent on ancient Indian trade routes, making the correct answer all of the above. |
| 11. Which ruling dynasty gave the maximum number of land grants to temples and Brahmins? (a) Gupta dynasty (b) Pala dynasty (c) Rashtrakuta dynasty (d) Pratihara dynasty Ans: (c) Explanation: Solution: The Rashtrakuta dynasty, which ruled parts of southwest India from the 8th to 10th centuries, is known for generously granting land to temples and Brahmins. The rulers were patrons of religion and culture, supporting the construction of temples dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, and Jain deities. They donated land to Brahmins to promote religious rituals and education. One of the best-known architectural examples is the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora. These land grants helped consolidate the king’s control over rural areas and enhanced their religious legitimacy. Copperplate inscriptions and stone records provide evidence of such donations. |
| 12. In which period was the concept of untouchability clearly defined? (a) Rigvedic period (b) Later Vedic period (c) Post-Gupta period (d) Time of Dharmashastras Ans: (d) Explanation: Solution: The concept of ‘untouchability’ was not clearly mentioned during the early Vedic period. The Rigvedic society followed a flexible varna system with relatively less social discrimination. In the Later Vedic period, caste-based distinctions became more rigid. However, a clear definition of untouchability appears in the Dharmashastras and Smriti texts, especially Manusmriti, where certain occupations (like handling dead bodies or working with leather) were considered impure. People engaged in such jobs were classified as untouchables. The institutionalization of Brahmanism during the post-Gupta period reinforced these rigid social divisions. |
| 13. Who was the first to be granted an Iqta by Muhammad Ghori in India? (a) Tajuddin Yalduz (b) Qutbuddin Aibak (c) Shamsuddin Iltutmish (d) Nasiruddin Qubacha Ans: (b) Explanation: Solution: The Iqta system was a type of land grant where officials were given rights to collect revenue and manage administration. Muhammad Ghori, to establish his rule in India, granted the first Iqta to his trusted slave commander Qutbuddin Aibak. Aibak was given administrative control over Delhi and surrounding areas. He used the revenue to maintain law and order and sustain his army. This system later became the administrative backbone of the Delhi Sultanate, rewarding loyalty with regional authority and enabling centralized control. |
| 14. Under which Sultan did Khalisa land expand most significantly? (a) Ghiyasuddin Balban (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq Ans: (b) Explanation: Solution: The term Khalisa referred to lands directly under the state’s control, whose revenue went to the royal treasury. Under Alauddin Khilji (1296–1316), the concept of Khalisa land was expanded significantly. As part of his economic and administrative reforms, many jagirs were confiscated and converted into Khalisa lands. This reduced the power of nobles and increased state revenue. The collected taxes were used to maintain the army, support public works, and strengthen central authority. This policy played a key role in his centralized governance model. |
| 15. The Sultanate coins Tanka, Shashgani, and Jital were made of which metals? (a) Silver, Copper (b) Gold, Silver, Copper (c) Silver, Zinc, Copper (d) Gold, Zinc, Copper Ans: (b) Explanation: Solution: During the Delhi Sultanate, a standardized coinage system was developed. Three prominent coins were in circulation—Tanka (typically made of silver), Shashgani (made of gold), and Jital (made of copper). This multi-metal system supported various levels of economic transactions, from local trade to state-level financial activities. Rulers like Alauddin Khilji and Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued reforms to regulate weights and inscriptions. Coins usually bore Persian text, the ruler’s name, and sometimes religious phrases. This structure brought monetary stability and aided trade across the Sultanate’s vast regions. |
| 16. Who composed Barahmasa? (a) Amir Khusrau (b) Imami (c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi (d) Raskhan Ans: (a) Explanation: Barahmasa is a traditional poetic genre that portrays emotional and natural elements over the twelve months of the year. One of the most famous Barahmasa poems was written by Amir Khusrau, a prominent poet, musician, and Sufi saint of the Delhi Sultanate. His works, composed in Persian, Hindi, and Braj Bhasha, reflect deep cultural insight and musical beauty. In this composition, he describes the changing moods of nature and the pain of separation experienced by a lover through the seasons. The lyrical quality and emotional depth of Barahmasa made it a significant part of folk literature and devotional poetry. |
| 17. What was the main feature of the Vijayanagar Empire’s financial system? (a) Surplus tax (b) Land revenue (c) Income from ports (d) Currency system Ans: (b) Explanation: The financial system of the Vijayanagar Empire was primarily based on land revenue. Taxes were imposed depending on the fertility of the land and the availability of irrigation. Generally, between one-third to one-half of the agricultural produce was collected as tax. Although trade and customs duties were also sources of revenue, agriculture remained the dominant base. Local administrators known as nayakas managed revenue collection. This system helped maintain administrative control and supported the empire’s economic strength. It also allowed for reinvestment in public works like temples and irrigation infrastructure. |
| 18. What was the main reason for Babur’s victory in the Battle of Panipat? (a) His cavalry (b) His military skills (c) Tulughma strategy (d) Disunity among Afghans Ans: (c) Explanation: In the First Battle of Panipat (1526), Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi and laid the foundation of the Mughal Empire in India. The decisive factor in his victory was the Tulughma strategy, where his army was divided into separate units that encircled the enemy and attacked from multiple sides. Babur also effectively used Turkish artillery, which was new to Indian warfare at the time. His forces were small but highly trained and disciplined. In contrast, Lodi’s army was larger but poorly coordinated. Babur’s tactical brilliance and strategic innovation ensured his success on the battlefield. |
| 19. Whose innovation was the Zabt system? (a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (b) Sikandar Lodi (c) Sher Shah (d) Akbar Ans: (d) Explanation: The Zabt system was introduced during the reign of Akbar and organized by Raja Todar Mal. It was a standardized land revenue system in which land was surveyed, measured, and taxed based on average productivity. This method brought uniformity and clarity to the tax process. Farmers were informed about the tax they owed, which minimized exploitation by local officials. Taxes were collected in cash, ensuring a direct flow of revenue to the imperial treasury. The system significantly enhanced administrative efficiency and reduced corruption in the Mughal revenue structure. |
| 20. Jawabit was related to which of the following? (a) State laws (b) Mansabdari system (c) Mint laws (d) Agricultural tax records Ans: (d) Explanation: The term Jawabit refers to official records related to agricultural taxes during the Mughal period. These records included detailed information about land revenue collections, amounts owed, payments made, and individual farmer details. Jawabit ensured that tax assessments were recorded accurately and consistently, which improved administrative efficiency and accountability. This system played a crucial role in maintaining a structured and transparent method of revenue management. It also helped in resolving disputes and avoiding double taxation by maintaining historical financial records under Mughal rule. |
| 21. What was the root cause of conflict between the Shah of Iran and the Mughal rulers? (a) Kabul (b) Kandahar (c) Kunduz (d) Ghazni Ans: (b) Explanation: The primary reason for conflict between the Mughals and the Shah of Iran was the strategic city of Kandahar. Located at a crucial position between India and Central Asia, it held great political and trade importance. Akbar captured Kandahar from the Safavids in 1595. However, the Safavid ruler Shah Abbas tried to reclaim it during the reigns of Jahangir and Shah Jahan. In 1622, the Persians succeeded in recapturing the city. Shah Jahan made multiple unsuccessful attempts to regain it. Control over Kandahar was linked to prestige and trade dominance, making it a recurring point of tension between the two empires. |
| 22. Who introduced the ‘Do-Aspa Sih-Aspa’ system? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb Ans: (b) Explanation: The ‘Do-Aspa Sih-Aspa’ system was introduced by Jahangir under the Mansabdari system. It categorized mansabdars based on the number of horses they maintained—’Do-Aspa’ meant two horses and ‘Sih-Aspa’ meant three. The intention was to ensure readiness and reliability of cavalry forces. It added another layer of assessment to the military ranking system, enhancing the efficiency of the Mughal military. The system emphasized the preparedness of the cavalry and increased accountability among mansabdars, thereby strengthening the Mughal army’s operational capacity. |
| 23. The Sarandzami system is related to? (a) Maratha land revenue system (b) Taluqdari system (c) Qutb Shahi administration (d) None of these Ans: (a) Explanation: The Sarandzami system was a part of the Maratha administrative structure, especially related to military land grants. Under this system, Maratha commanders and officers were given rights to collect revenue from specified lands. These land grants were called Sarandzam, and the holder was known as a Sarandzamdar. A portion of the collected revenue was used to maintain troops, while the rest went to the state treasury. This arrangement helped the Marathas sustain their military operations without direct cash payments and ensured a steady revenue system in a decentralized polity. |
| 24. Where did the British establish their first factory in India in 1612? (a) Goa (b) Hooghly in Bengal (c) Umarkot (d) Surat Ans: (d) Explanation: The first English factory in India was established at Surat in 1612. This marked the beginning of the British commercial presence in India. After defeating the Portuguese in a naval battle, Captain Thomas Best gained favor with the Mughal court. As a result, Jahangir granted permission to set up a trading post. Surat was a key port city involved in trade with Persia and the Arabian Peninsula. From here, the English East India Company began expanding its influence across India, later establishing posts in Madras, Bombay, and Calcutta. |
| 25. Who formed the Ramoji peasant group in Maharashtra? (a) Justice Ranade (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) Vasudev Balwant Phadke (d) Jyotiba Phule Ans: (c) Explanation: Vasudev Balwant Phadke, regarded as one of India’s earliest revolutionaries, formed the Ramoji peasant group in Maharashtra. He mobilized the discontented Ramoshi tribe, a marginalized community, against British rule. Phadke was disturbed by the plight of peasants under British economic policies and used this tribal group to initiate an armed rebellion. His actions marked one of the first organized military resistances against the British, laying the groundwork for later revolutionary movements. Though his revolt was eventually suppressed, it left a lasting legacy in India’s freedom struggle. |
| 26. Who repealed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878? (a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Lytton (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Minto Ans: (a) Explanation: The Vernacular Press Act was introduced in 1878 by Lord Lytton to curb the freedom of the Indian-language press. It imposed strict censorship on vernacular newspapers. Due to strong opposition, Lord Ripon repealed this act in 1882. By restoring press freedom, it gave Indians a platform to express themselves and greatly supported the growth of nationalist sentiments. |
| 27. Who started the newspaper ‘Free Hindustan’ in the USA? (a) Ramnath Puri (b) G. D. Kumar (c) Lala Hardayal (d) Taraknath Das Ans: (d) Explanation: ‘Free Hindustan’ was started in 1908 in the United States by Taraknath Das. It served as a voice for the Indian independence movement abroad. The newspaper aimed to build global support for India’s freedom and mobilize the Indian diaspora. It also laid the ideological foundation for the Ghadar movement and highlighted British oppression in India. |
| 28. What was the most important reason behind the outbreak of the Ghadar Revolution? (a) Arrest of Lala Hardayal (b) Komagata Maru incident (c) Beginning of World War I (d) Execution of Kartar Singh Sarabha Ans: (b) Explanation: The Ghadar Revolution was an armed uprising planned by Indian revolutionaries abroad against British rule in 1914. The immediate cause was the Komagata Maru incident, in which Indian passengers returning from Canada were attacked and killed by British forces in Calcutta. This incident outraged Indian expatriates and became a catalyst for the revolution. |
| 29. In which session did Home Rule supporters successfully demonstrate their political strength? (a) 1916 Lucknow Session of Congress (b) 1920 Bombay Trade Union Session (c) 1918 A.U.P. Kisan Sabha (d) 1938 Nagpur Session Ans: (a) Explanation: The 1916 Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress was significant because Home Rule advocates like Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak successfully asserted their political influence. The session also saw the historic Congress-Muslim League pact, which helped unify moderates and extremists and gave momentum to the Home Rule movement. |
| 30. Who was the author of ‘The Indian Unrest’? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Annie Besant (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Valentine Chirol Ans: (d) Explanation: ‘The Indian Unrest’ was written by British journalist Valentine Chirol in 1910. He portrayed the rising Indian nationalist movement as a source of unrest and blamed leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak for inciting agitation. The book reflected the British colonial viewpoint and led to a defamation case by Tilak against the author. |
| 31. Who participated in the Satyagraha led by Gandhi in Ahmedabad in 1917–18? (a) Peasants (b) Industrial workers (c) Public (d) Mill workers Ans: (d) Explanation: In 1918, Gandhi led a strike in Ahmedabad in support of textile mill workers demanding a wage hike. This was Gandhi’s first major labor movement. Workers practiced restraint and non-violence under his leadership. Eventually, the mill owners had to agree to a wage settlement. This movement played a foundational role in shaping the early labor movement in India. |
| 32. In which city did the Khilafat Committee meet in 1920 and request Gandhi to lead the Non-Cooperation Movement? (a) Lucknow (b) Lahore (c) Allahabad (d) Karachi Ans: (a) Explanation: In August 1920, the Khilafat Committee met in Lucknow and invited Gandhi to lead the Non-Cooperation Movement. Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali played key roles in this proposal. Gandhi accepted the offer and worked to align Congress with the movement, forging unity between Hindus and Muslims and expanding the movement’s mass base. |
| 33. What was the objective of the Eka Movement in Awadh? (a) To stop paying rent to the government (b) To protect zamindars’ rights (c) To end Satyagraha (d) Equal rent for kharif and rabi crops Ans: (a) Explanation: The Eka Movement, launched in 1921–22 in Awadh, was led by middle-class peasants. Its aim was to stop paying excessive rent, protest against forced collections, and resist exploitation by landlords and government agents. This agrarian movement marked growing rural participation in the national struggle and was linked to the broader goals of the Congress and the Kisan Sabha. |
| 34. ‘Nai-Dhobi Bandh’ was a form of social boycott organized in 1919 by – (a) Peasants in Pratapgarh (b) Sadhus (c) Zamindars against lower castes (d) Lower castes against contractors Ans: (a) Explanation: The Nai-Dhobi Bandh in Pratapgarh, Uttar Pradesh (1919), was a unique social boycott movement led by peasants. They refused to engage with oppressive landlords and officials. Barbers and washermen also withdrew their services, making the boycott symbolic and effective. It was a strong act of peaceful resistance against exploitation. |
| 35. Who originally conceived and founded the INA? (a) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Dr. Mohan Singh (c) Chandrashekhar Azad (d) Bhagat Singh Ans: (b) Explanation: The Indian National Army (INA) was founded in 1942 by Dr. Mohan Singh with Japanese support during World War II. He mobilized Indian POWs from the British army to fight for independence. Later, Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized and led the INA, turning it into a symbol of India’s fight for freedom in Southeast Asia. |
| 36. In which Executive Committee did Congress adopt the policy to abolish land ownership? (a) Executive Committee 1937 (b) Executive Committee 1942 (c) Executive Committee 1945 (d) Executive Committee 1946 Ans: (a) Explanation: In 1937, after assuming power in several provinces, the Congress Executive Committee under Nehru adopted a policy to abolish landlordism. It proposed acquisition of lands from zamindars and redistribution. This was a landmark step towards land reform and reducing rural inequality. The policy laid the groundwork for post-independence land reform programs. |
| 37. When did the Chotanagpur tribal rebellion occur? (a) 1807–1808 (b) 1920 (c) 1958–59 (d) 1989 Ans: (b) Explanation: The Chotanagpur tribal rebellion, also known as the Tana Bhagat Movement, began in 1920 in present-day Jharkhand. The tribals protested against forced conversions, forest restrictions, and debt-related exploitation. It was a peaceful cultural resistance movement inspired by Gandhian principles, aimed at protecting tribal identity and autonomy. |
| 38. Gandhi’s Champaran Satyagraha was related to – (a) Ijaradari (b) Tinkathia (c) Janmees (d) None of these Ans: (b) Explanation: In 1917, Gandhi launched the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar to support indigo farmers oppressed under the Tinkathia system. Farmers were forced to grow indigo on three-twentieths of their land. Gandhi’s legal and moral intervention forced the British to abolish this system, setting a precedent for future peaceful resistance. |
| 39. The Ulgulan rebellion is associated with – (a) Santhal (b) Kacha Naga (c) Kol (d) Birsa Munda Ans: (d) Explanation: The Ulgulan (1899–1900) was a tribal revolt led by Birsa Munda in the Chotanagpur region. It aimed to challenge British forest laws and landlord oppression. Birsa called for tribal autonomy and revival of traditional systems. The rebellion is seen as a significant assertion of tribal rights and identity in modern Indian history. |
| 40. The Constitution of India was adopted by – (a) Constituent Assembly (b) British Parliament (c) Governor-General (d) Indian Parliament Ans: (a) Explanation: The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly. It had 299 members who debated and finalized the draft prepared by the Drafting Committee led by B. R. Ambedkar. The document laid the foundation for democratic governance and came into effect on 26 January 1950. |
| 41. India has secular sovereignty because the Preamble of the Constitution begins with – (a) Democratic India (b) People’s Democracy (c) Democracy of the People (d) We, the People of India Ans: (d) Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins with the phrase “We, the People of India.” This opening affirms the collective will and sovereign power of the people. It reflects the idea of unity amid social, cultural, and linguistic diversity and indicates that the Constitution derives its authority from the citizens of India. |
| 42. A financial bill can be introduced – (a) Only in Rajya Sabha (b) Only in Lok Sabha (c) Simultaneously in both houses (d) In the joint session of both houses Ans: (b) Explanation: As per Article 110 and 109 of the Indian Constitution, a financial bill (including the Budget and Money Bill) can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha may only offer recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. |
| 43. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens are described – (a) In Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution (b) In Articles 13 to 36 (c) In Articles 15 to 39 (d) In Articles 16 to 40 Ans: (a) Explanation: Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) lists the Fundamental Rights. These rights guarantee civil liberties such as equality, freedom, religion, cultural and educational rights, and legal remedies, which can be enforced by the courts in case of violation. |
| 44. The subject of Panchayati Raj falls under – (a) Concurrent List (b) Union List (c) State List (d) Residuary List Ans: (c) Explanation: Panchayati Raj and local self-government are mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. States have the authority to make laws on this subject, including the structure, election, and powers of Panchayats. |
| 45. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs states to organize village panchayats? (a) Article 32 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 498 (d) Article 51 Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 40, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, instructs the State to organize village panchayats as self-governing units. Although not enforceable by law, this article guides the state to legislate accordingly for decentralized governance. |
| 46. Judicial review means that the Supreme Court – (a) Has the final authority in all cases (b) Can impeach the President (c) Can review High Court judgments (d) Can declare a state law unconstitutional Ans: (d) Explanation: Judicial review empowers the Supreme Court to declare any law or executive action unconstitutional if it violates the Constitution. Though not explicitly mentioned, this power has been established through Article 13(2) and confirmed by judicial interpretation over time. |
| 47. The guiding ideals of a welfare state are described in – (a) Directive Principles of State Policy (b) Chapter on Fundamental Rights (c) Seventh Schedule of the Constitution (d) Preamble of the Constitution Ans: (a) Explanation: The idea of a welfare state is primarily reflected in the Directive Principles (Articles 36 to 51). These principles guide the State to ensure social and economic justice, especially for the poor and marginalized, and promote equitable development. |
| 48. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by – (a) All Members of Parliament (b) Directly by the people (c) All Members of Lok Sabha (d) Members of the majority parties in Lok Sabha Ans: (c) Explanation: The Speaker is elected by all the members of the Lok Sabha. This election typically takes place during the first session of a new Lok Sabha. A majority of votes is required, and the process is governed by the rules of procedure of the Lok Sabha. |
| 49. The President of India can be removed from office by – (a) Prime Minister of India (b) Lok Sabha (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Parliament Ans: (d) Explanation: The President of India can be removed by impeachment, which is a legislative process involving both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The procedure is laid down in Article 61 of the Constitution and requires a two-thirds majority in both Houses. |
| 50. Without being a member of any House, how long can a person remain a minister in India? (a) Three months (b) Six months (c) One year (d) No time limit Ans: (b) Explanation: According to Articles 75(5) and 164(4) of the Constitution, a person can be appointed a minister without being a member of the legislature but must become a member (elected or nominated) within six months to continue in office. |
| 51. What should be the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament? (a) Four months (b) Six months (c) One year (d) As decided by the President Ans: (b) Explanation: According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament can be six months. If it exceeds this, it leads to a constitutional violation and parliamentary deadlock. |
| 52. Indian democracy is based on the fact that – (a) The Constitution is written (b) Fundamental rights are provided (c) People have the right to elect and change governments (d) There are Directive Principles of State Policy Ans: (c) Explanation: Indian democracy is based on the principle that citizens have the right to choose and change governments. This is ensured through universal adult franchise and free, fair, and regular elections conducted by the Election Commission. |
| 53. The President can declare a national emergency on the grounds of – (a) Armed rebellion (b) External aggression (c) War (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation: Under Article 352 of the Constitution, the President can declare a national emergency if there is war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. It requires the advice of the Council of Ministers and a formal proclamation. |
| 54. In terms of Lok Sabha representation, which states are ranked second and third? (a) Maharashtra and West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (c) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra (d) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh Ans: (a) Explanation: Lok Sabha seats are allocated based on state population. After Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra has the second-highest number of seats, followed by West Bengal in third place. This is determined by census data and the Election Commission. |
| 55. The longest year is on – (a) Pluto (b) Jupiter (c) Neptune (d) Earth Ans: (a) Explanation: A planet’s year is the time it takes to complete one orbit around the Sun. Pluto’s orbital period is about 248 Earth years, making it the longest year in the solar system. Earth’s year is only 365 days in comparison. |
| 56. Terra Rossa soil typically develops in areas where – (a) Limestone is present (b) Syenite is present (c) Granite is present (d) Sandstone is present Ans: (a) Explanation: Terra Rossa is a red soil formed from the weathering of limestone in karst landscapes. It is fertile and typically found in southern Europe and other limestone-rich regions. |
| 57. Mauna Loa’ is an example of – (a) Active volcano (b) Dormant volcano (c) Extinct volcano (d) Plateau in a volcanic area Ans: (a) Explanation: Mauna Loa, located in Hawaii, is the world’s largest active volcano. It is a shield volcano with slow-moving lava flows that spread over a wide area. It last erupted in 2022. |
| 58. Which of the following is false about sedimentary rocks? (a) They depend on heat and pressure (b) They are crystalline (c) They are deposited in layers (d) They cannot form in water Ans: (b) Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are usually non-crystalline and formed through the deposition of material by water, wind, or ice. Crystalline structures are found in igneous or metamorphic rocks. Thus, option (b) is false. |
| 59. Tin is found in – (a) Placer deposits (b) Metamorphic rocks (c) Felsic igneous rocks (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation: Tin, primarily obtained from cassiterite ore, is found in placer deposits, metamorphic rocks, and some felsic igneous rocks. In India, tin deposits are located in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. |
| 60. How was Lakshadweep formed? (a) Coral origin (b) Volcanic origin (c) Soil deposition (d) None of these Ans: (a) Explanation: Lakshadweep is a group of islands in the Arabian Sea formed primarily by coral reefs. These islands are built on submerged dead coral platforms and are not of volcanic or alluvial origin. |
| 61. Why are clear nights colder than cloudy nights? (a) Due to condensation (b) Due to radiation (c) Due to incidence (d) Due to conduction Ans: (b) Explanation: On clear nights, infrared radiation from Earth’s surface escapes directly into space, as there are no clouds to reflect it back. This leads to rapid cooling. On cloudy nights, clouds reflect radiation, keeping the surface warmer. This is known as radiation cooling. |
| 62. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Mediterranean – Summer rainfall (b) Mediterranean – Afternoon thunder showers (c) Monsoonal – Year-round rainfall (d) Desert – Winter rainfall Ans: (b) Explanation: The Mediterranean climate is dry in summer and rainy in winter. Afternoon thunder showers are common there. Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect because monsoonal regions receive rainfall mainly from June to September, and deserts are extremely dry. |
| 63. The ‘Bhabhar’ region south of the Shivaliks is an example of which type of landform? (a) Midland (b) Intermontane (c) Foothill (d) Maritime Ans: (c) Explanation: The Bhabhar region lies directly south of the Shivalik hills and is known as a foothill zone. It features coarse sediments like pebbles and gravel deposited by rivers, and streams often disappear underground here. |
| 64. India’s latitudinal extent is – (a) 37°17′53″N – 8°6′28″S (b) 37°17′53″N – 8°4′28″S (c) 37°17′53″N – 8°28′N (d) None of the above Ans: (c) Explanation: India extends from 8°4′28″N to 37°17′53″N, fully within the Northern Hemisphere. Option (c) is close enough to be considered correct in competitive exams. The others are incorrect as they show south latitude. |
| 65. India’s area is 2.2% of the world’s land, but its population accounts for – (a) 16% of mankind (b) 17% of mankind (c) 18% of mankind (d) 28% of mankind Ans: (b) Explanation: While India occupies about 2.4% (some sources say 2.2%) of the world’s land area, it is home to nearly 17% of the global population, indicating high population density. |
| 66. The depth of Ganga alluvial soil below the surface is about – (a) Up to 6000 meters (b) Up to 600 meters (c) Up to 800 meters (d) Up to 100 meters Ans: (b) Explanation: In the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains, the depth of alluvial deposits is around 600 meters. This thick layer is vital for agriculture, groundwater storage, and dam construction. |
| 67. Indian monsoon is an example of seasonal shift due to – (a) Heat capacity of land and sea (b) Cold winds from Central Asia (c) Uniform temperature (d) None of these Ans: (a) Explanation: The Indian monsoon results from the differential heating of land and sea. In summer, land heats up more rapidly, creating low pressure, drawing moist air from the ocean. In winter, the pattern reverses. |
| 68. Which river originates near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet? (a) Brahmaputra (b) Sutlej (c) Indus (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation: Near Mansarovar Lake, three major rivers—Brahmaputra (north of lake), Sutlej (from Rakshastal), and Indus (from glaciers west of the lake)—originate. Hence, all are correct. |
| 69. Hundru waterfall is formed on – (a) Indravati (b) Kaveri (c) Subarnarekha (d) None of these Ans: (c) Explanation: Hundru Falls is located on the Subarnarekha River in Jharkhand (Ranchi). It descends from a height of about 30 meters, forming a scenic landscape and is significant in fluvial geography. |
| 70. In the Himalayas, the snowline lies between – (a) 4500–6000 meters in the east (b) 4000–5800 meters in the west (c) 4500–6000 meters in the west (d) None of these Ans: (c) Explanation: In the western Himalayas, the snowline lies between 4500 and 6000 meters. In the eastern Himalayas, it’s usually higher due to more moisture and temperature variations. |
| 71. What is the length of India’s coastline? (a) 6200 km (b) 6100 km (c) 5985 km (d) 6175 km Ans: (a) Explanation: India’s mainland coastline is approximately 6200 km long. Including the coastlines of island territories (Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep), the total reaches around 7516 km. Sometimes, including hilly borders, the total border length is considered about 22716.5 km. |
| 72. Which of the following is not a cash crop? (a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton (c) Jute (d) Wheat Ans: (d) Explanation: Cash crops are cultivated primarily for sale rather than for the farmer’s own use. Sugarcane, cotton, and jute fall into this category. Wheat is a staple food grain primarily consumed directly, hence not considered a cash crop. |
| 73. India is the leading producer and consumer of – (a) Rice (b) Tea (c) Oilseeds (d) Pulses Ans: (b) Explanation: India is among the top producers and the largest consumer of tea globally. Major tea-producing regions include Assam, West Bengal, and Nilgiris. Tea also holds a significant cultural and economic value in India. |
| 74. Which of the following is a mineral-rich state in India? (a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Odisha Ans: (a) Explanation: Rajasthan is rich in mineral resources such as iron ore, phosphates, bauxite, silica sand, and chromite. Though states like MP, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh are also mineral-rich, Rajasthan is notably abundant in diverse mineral deposits. |
| 75. Where was India’s first fertilizer plant established? (a) Nangal (b) Sindri (c) Alwaye (d) Trombay Ans: (b) Explanation: India’s first fertilizer plant was set up in Sindri, Jharkhand (then Bihar), in 1951–52. This plant was a milestone in introducing chemical fertilizers in Indian agriculture and came through international technical collaboration. |
| 76. Which is the most populous city in India? (a) Bangalore (b) Kolkata (c) Hyderabad (d) Madras Ans: (b) Explanation: According to Census 2011 and projections for 2021, Kolkata ranks among the most populous cities in India. Though Mumbai is often the most populous, Kolkata was considered second in some government data and exam contexts. |
| 77. Which of the following industrial towns is located on the Chotanagpur Plateau? (a) Bhilai (b) Ranchi (c) Asansol (d) Durgapur Ans: (b) Explanation: Ranchi, the capital of Jharkhand, lies on the Chotanagpur Plateau. It is an industrial hub due to rich resources like coal, iron ore, and bauxite. Ranchi also houses heavy machinery and steel industries, making it a key industrial area. |
| 78. Damodar River originates from – (a) Tibet (b) Chotanagpur (c) Near Nainital (d) Western slope of Someshwar Hills Ans: (b) Explanation: The Damodar River originates from the Chotanagpur Plateau in Jharkhand. It was historically called the “Sorrow of Bengal” due to frequent floods. It joins the Hooghly River and supports irrigation and hydroelectric projects via the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC). |
| 79. ‘Shahtush’ wool, considered the most beautiful, warm, and light in the world, is produced in – (a) Nepal (b) Uzbekistan (c) China (d) Bangladesh Ans: (b) Explanation: ‘Shahtush’ wool is mainly produced in the mountainous regions of Uzbekistan. It is similar to Pashmina and is obtained from a rare species of Cashmere goat. Known for its softness, warmth, and lightness, it is highly prized and used in luxury garments. |
| 80. Which of the following continents is the largest by area? (a) Europe (b) Africa (c) North America (d) South America Ans: (b) Explanation: While Asia is the largest continent by area, if it is not among the options, Africa is the correct answer. Africa spans about 30 million sq. km, making it the second largest after Asia and larger than Europe, North and South America. |
| 81. Who is referred to as the “Mistress of the Eastern Seas”? (a) Sri Lanka (b) Pakistan (c) Burma (d) India Ans: (c) Explanation: Burma (now Myanmar) was historically referred to as the “Mistress of the Eastern Seas” due to its strategic location along trade routes between East and Southeast Asia. Its ports were crucial for maritime trade and naval activities. |
| 82. The Planning Commission is a – (a) Ministry (b) Government Dept. (c) Advisory Body (d) Autonomous Body Ans: (c) Explanation: The Planning Commission, established in 1950, was an advisory body to the Government of India for formulating and monitoring national economic plans. It was neither a ministry nor a government department. It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015. |
| 83. On what is India’s planned economy based? (a) Socialist Economy (b) Mixed Economy (c) Capitalist Economy (d) Gandhian Economy Ans: (b) Explanation: India follows a mixed economy model where both public and private sectors coexist. The government intervenes in infrastructure and welfare, while the private sector drives trade and manufacturing. This structure aims to balance growth with social equity. |
| 84. The largest source of income in India is – (a) Direct Tax (b) Sales Tax (c) Railways (d) Octroi Tax Ans: (a) Explanation: Direct taxes, such as income tax and corporate tax, are the largest sources of income for the Indian government. These taxes are progressive and transparent. Though GST has increased the share of indirect taxes, direct taxes remain the primary revenue stream. |
| 85. India’s progress has been satisfactory in terms of – (a) Increase in GNP (b) Reduction in Unemployment (c) Per Capita Income (d) Reduction in Inequality Ans: (a) Explanation: India’s economic progress is mainly assessed through the growth in Gross National Product (GNP). Since independence, GDP has seen consistent growth due to expansion in agriculture, industry, and services. Unemployment and inequality still remain key challenges. |
| 86. Which industry was worst affected due to Partition? (a) Cotton & Sugar (b) Engineering & Cement (c) Jute & Cotton (d) Paper & Iron Ans: (c) Explanation: During the 1947 Partition, the jute industry suffered the most. Most jute cultivation areas became part of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh), while the mills remained in India, disrupting supply. Cotton industry was also affected due to loss of markets and resources. |
| 87. The Eighth Five-Year Plan prioritised – (a) Employment Growth (b) Import Growth (c) Industrial Growth (d) Freedom of Press Ans: (a) Explanation: The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) focused on generating employment. It aligned with new economic reforms like liberalisation and privatisation, aiming to promote jobs, reduce poverty, and support small and medium enterprises during economic transformation. |
| 88. Which industry employs the most people in India? (a) Jute Industry (b) Iron Industry (c) Textile Industry (d) Sugar Industry Ans: (c) Explanation: The textile industry is the largest employment provider after agriculture in India. It engages workers across spinning, weaving, dyeing, stitching, and export processes. This sector plays a key role in both the organized and unorganized labor markets. |
| 89. The main source of national income in India is – (a) Industry (b) Agriculture (c) Forests (d) Foreign Trade Ans: (b) Explanation: Agriculture is the main source of India’s national income, with nearly 60% of the population dependent on it. While services and industries contribute significantly to GDP, agriculture remains vital both directly and indirectly through allied activities. |
| 90. In a typical dry cell, the electrolyte used is – (a) Zinc (b) Sulphuric Acid (c) Ammonium Chloride (d) Manganese Dioxide Ans: (c) Explanation: In a dry cell like the Leclanché cell, ammonium chloride is used as the electrolyte. It helps the flow of electrons between the zinc container (anode) and manganese dioxide (cathode). Such cells are commonly used in household batteries due to their simple, cheap design. |
| 91. What does a dynamo do? (a) Converts electrical energy into kinetic energy (b) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy (c) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy (d) Generates mechanical energy Ans: (b) Explanation: A dynamo is an electric generator that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy using electromagnetic induction. When its coil rotates in a magnetic field, an electric current is generated. Dynamos are widely used, from bicycle lights to large turbine-based power generators. It’s a fundamental example of energy transformation and plays a significant role in renewable energy technologies. |
| 92. Why does the sky appear blue? (a) Because sunlight has more blue color (b) Because short wavelengths scatter more than long ones (c) Because blue color is more receptive to eyes (d) Because the atmosphere absorbs long wavelengths more Ans: (b) Explanation: The sky appears blue due to Rayleigh scattering. When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, shorter wavelengths (like blue) scatter more due to their small wavelength compared to larger wavelengths. This scattered blue light reaches our eyes from all directions, making the sky appear blue. This is a basic physical phenomenon illustrating the wave nature of light and its interaction with atmospheric particles. |
| 93. One micron equals – (a) 1/10 mm (b) 1/100 mm (c) 1/1000 mm (d) 1/10,000 mm Ans: (c) Explanation: One micron (µm) is equal to 1/1000 millimeter or 10⁻⁶ meter. It is also called a micrometer. This unit is commonly used in fields like biology, microbiology, semiconductors, and air quality measurement. For instance, the average diameter of human hair is about 70 microns. Micron-scale measurements help scientists analyze microscopic organisms and particles with precision. |
| 94. Characteristic of a superconductor – (a) High permeability (b) Low permeability (c) Zero permeability (d) Infinite permeability Ans: (d) Explanation: A superconductor is a material that exhibits zero electrical resistance below a certain critical temperature. It also exhibits the Meissner effect, where it expels magnetic fields, giving it infinite magnetic permeability. This makes it highly efficient in applications like Maglev trains, MRI machines, and lossless power transmission systems. Superconductors represent advanced technology and are central to various cutting-edge scientific applications. |
| 95. Reason for spherical shape of rain drops – (a) Density of liquid (b) Surface tension (c) Atmospheric pressure (d) Gravity Ans: (b) Explanation: Rain drops take a spherical shape due to surface tension. The molecules on the surface of the drop experience inward cohesive forces, minimizing surface area. A sphere has the smallest surface area for a given volume, hence the drop assumes this shape. Surface tension is a fundamental physical property of liquids that plays a crucial role in various natural and technological processes. |
| 96. If a refrigerator door is left open in a room – (a) The room will get a bit cooler (b) The room will cool down to fridge temperature (c) The room will eventually get warmer (d) The room will neither warm nor cool Ans: (c) Explanation: If the refrigerator door is left open, the compressor keeps working to maintain the cold inside. However, the heat generated by the compressor is released into the room, which eventually increases the room’s temperature. This illustrates the principle of conservation of energy and thermodynamics, showing that refrigerators do not cool spaces but relocate heat from inside to the outside. |
| 97. From which mineral was radium obtained? (a) Limestone (b) Pitchblende (c) Rutile (d) Hematite Ans: (b) Explanation: Radium was discovered by Marie and Pierre Curie from the mineral pitchblende (also known as uraninite), which contains uranium and traces of radium. Radium is a radioactive element used in cancer therapy and early nuclear research. Its discovery significantly advanced our understanding of radioactivity and led to further developments in atomic science. |
| 98. The principle of an atomic bomb is based on – (a) Nuclear fusion (b) Nuclear fission (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Ans: (b) Explanation: The atomic bomb works on the principle of nuclear fission. Heavy atomic nuclei like Uranium-235 or Plutonium-239 split into smaller nuclei, releasing immense energy. The process is chain-reactive, where released neutrons cause further fission. This mechanism was first used in warfare during World War II in Hiroshima and Nagasaki, demonstrating the destructive potential of nuclear energy. |
| 99. What is the chemical formula of Plaster of Paris? (a) CaSO₄ (b) CaSO₄·H₂O (c) 2CaSO₄·H₂O (d) CaSO₄·½H₂O Ans: (d) Explanation: The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO₄·½H₂O. It is prepared by heating gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O), which drives out water molecules. It is a white powder that hardens quickly when mixed with water. It is used in making molds, surgical casts, and in construction. Its quick setting time makes it highly useful in various practical applications. |
| 100. Why does lemon taste sour? (a) Due to hydrochloric acid (b) Due to acetic acid (c) Due to tartaric acid (d) Due to citric acid Ans: (d) Explanation: Lemon tastes sour because it contains citric acid, a natural organic acid also found in other citrus fruits. Citric acid not only imparts a sharp sour taste but is also a good source of vitamin C. It is used in the food industry as a preservative and flavoring agent, and in cleaning and medical applications. Its chemical formula is C₆H₈O₇. |
| 101. Air is a – (a) Compound (b) Element (c) Mixture (d) Electrolyte Ans: (c) Explanation: Air is a mixture of various gases like nitrogen (~78%), oxygen (~21%), carbon dioxide, and trace gases. These gases do not chemically combine but are physically mixed. Hence, air doesn’t have a fixed chemical formula, and its components can be separated physically. |
| 102. Which of the following is not true for bleaching powder? (a) Highly soluble in water (b) Light yellow powder (c) Oxidizing agent (d) Releases chlorine when reacted with dilute acid Ans: (a) Explanation: Bleaching powder (Calcium hypochlorite) is a light yellow oxidizing powder. It releases chlorine gas when reacted with dilute acids. It is only moderately soluble in water, not highly soluble, making the first statement incorrect. |
| 103. A mercury-alloy mixture is – (a) Highly colored alloy (b) Carbon-containing alloy (c) Mercury-containing alloy (d) Abrasion-resistant alloy Ans: (c) Explanation: Alloys containing mercury are known as amalgams. Mercury combines with metals like gold, silver, and tin to form these. They are used in dental fillings, batteries, and metal refining. Since they contain mercury, they are called mercury-alloy mixtures. |
| 104. The most common type of coal is – (a) Bituminous (b) Semi-bituminous (c) Anthracite (d) Coke Ans: (a) Explanation: Bituminous coal is the most commonly found and used type of coal. It has a high heating value and is widely used in power generation and industry. It burns more cleanly than other types and is abundantly available in India. |
| 105. The age of the oldest rock groups is estimated by – (a) Potassium-Argon method (b) Carbon-14 method (c) Ra-Si method (d) Uranium-Lead method Ans: (d) Explanation: The Uranium-Lead dating method is used for determining the age of very old rocks. It’s based on the radioactive decay of uranium into lead. This technique is suitable for rocks that are millions to billions of years old. |
| 106. Fish die when taken out of water because – (a) They get more oxygen (b) Their body temperature rises (c) They cannot breathe (d) They cannot swim Ans: (c) Explanation: Fish breathe using gills that extract dissolved oxygen from water. Outside water, gills collapse and cannot function in air. As a result, fish are unable to obtain oxygen and die due to suffocation. |
| 107. Members of a honeybee colony recognize each other by – (a) Smell (b) Vision (c) Dance (d) Touch Ans: (a) Explanation: Honeybees use smell to identify members of their colony. The queen bee emits a pheromone that helps maintain social order. Each colony has a unique scent that helps differentiate its members from intruders. |
| 108. How many teeth in humans develop twice during life? (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 28 Ans: (c) Explanation: Humans have 20 milk (deciduous) teeth that appear in infancy and are replaced by permanent teeth. These 20 teeth develop twice. The remaining 12 teeth (molars) erupt only once and do not have a milk stage. |
| 109. In the human body, the bones of the leg are – (a) Hollow (b) Spongy (c) Solid (d) Hinged Ans: (c) Explanation: Leg bones such as the femur are solid and dense. They support the body’s weight and are built to withstand pressure and stress. Their strength and solid structure provide durability and support. |
| 110. How many bones are there in the human skull? (a) 8 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 34 Ans: (a) Explanation: The adult human skull consists of 8 bones: frontal, two parietal, two temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid. These are connected by immovable joints called sutures and protect the brain. |
| 111. The recent ancestor of modern humans is – (a) Java Man (b) Cro-Magnon Man (c) Neanderthal Man (d) Peking Man Ans: (b) Explanation: Cro-Magnon Man is considered the direct ancestor of modern humans. They lived around 40,000 years ago in Europe and had physical characteristics, brain capacity, and social behavior very similar to Homo sapiens. They used tools and made cave paintings, showing signs of advanced thinking and communication. |
| 112. A new plant resembling the mother plant is obtained from – (a) Seeds (b) Stem Cutting (c) None of these (d) Both Ans: (b) Explanation: A plant grown through stem cutting is genetically identical to the parent plant. This method of asexual reproduction involves cutting a part of the stem and planting it, from which a new plant grows. It is commonly used for plants like rose, sugarcane, and money plant. |
| 113. The substance found in more than 80% of cells is – (a) Protein (b) Fat (c) Minerals (d) Water Ans: (d) Explanation: Water makes up more than 80% of the total volume of a cell. It is essential for chemical reactions, maintaining temperature, transporting substances, and preserving the cell’s structure and function. Water also provides flexibility and stability to cells. |
| 114. Insulin is obtained from – (a) Ginger Rhizome (b) Dalia Root (c) Balsam Flower (d) Potato Tuber Ans: (d) Explanation: Insulin is a hormone now primarily produced using biotechnology from bacteria. Although the correct scientific source is not plant-based, potato tuber (a carbohydrate source) is considered here due to the nature of the options. Scientifically, insulin is not derived from any plant parts. |
| 115. The world’s largest flower is – (a) Lotus (b) Rafflesia (c) Giant Cactus (d) None is correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Rafflesia arnoldii is the world’s largest flower, found in Southeast Asia. It can grow up to 3 feet wide and weigh several kilograms. It is a parasitic plant with no leaves, stems, or roots and emits a foul smell like rotting meat to attract insects. |
| 116. Stem cutting is commonly used for propagation of – (a) Banana (b) Sugarcane (c) Mango (d) Cotton Ans: (b) Explanation: Sugarcane propagation is mainly done through stem cutting. Each joint of the sugarcane stem can sprout a new plant when planted in soil. This method is easy, fast, and efficient and is widely adopted for large-scale sugarcane farming. |
| 117. The pea plant is a – (a) Herb (b) Flowering Plant (c) Shrub (d) None of these Ans: (c) Explanation: The pea plant is classified as a shrub, characterized by its short height and branching structure. It is commonly grown as a Rabi crop and is valued for its flowers and seed pods. It has tendrils to help it climb for support. |
| 118. The main factor of evolution is – (a) Mutation (b) Acquired Characters (c) Sexual Reproduction (d) Natural Selection Ans: (d) Explanation: Natural selection, proposed by Charles Darwin, is the main factor in evolution. Organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce more, passing on those traits to the next generation. Over time, this process leads to the development of new species. |
| 119. Soil conservation is the process where – (a) Barren land is made fertile (b) Soil is rotated (c) Soil is eroded (d) Soil is protected from damage Ans: (d) Explanation: Soil conservation involves protecting soil from erosion, degradation, and loss of fertility. Techniques like contour farming, afforestation, terracing, and water harvesting are used. These help maintain the soil’s productivity and prevent damage from natural and human factors. |
| 120. Har Gobind Khorana was honored for the discovery of – (a) Protein Synthesis (b) Gene Synthesis (c) Nitrogenous Bases (d) None of the above Ans: (b) Explanation: Dr. Har Gobind Khorana was awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1968 for synthesizing genes in a laboratory. His work in artificial DNA synthesis revolutionized genetics and opened possibilities for genetic disorder treatment and biotechnology research. |
| 121. What was the objective of the Munger’s Barhiya Tal protest? (a) Demand for return of Bakasht land (b) To stop exploitation of Muslim farmers (c) End of Zamindari system (d) Start of class war Ans: (a) Explanation: The Barhiya Tal protest in Munger district of Bihar was centered around the demand for the return of Bakasht land. Bakasht land refers to the agricultural land that landlords had seized from farmers and started cultivating themselves. This protest was led by peasants and reflected the widespread rural discontent against the feudal landholding system. It became symbolic of the farmer-landlord conflict and highlighted the demand for agrarian justice. |
| 122. When was Bihar separated from Bengal? (a) 1911 (b) 1912 (c) 1913 (d) 1914 Ans: (b) Explanation: Bihar was officially separated from the Bengal Presidency on 22 March 1912. This reorganization was intended to improve administrative efficiency. The new province was named Bihar and Orissa with its capital at Patna. Later, in 1936, Orissa was also separated from Bihar, forming a distinct province. This separation marked a significant administrative and political milestone in Indian colonial governance. |
| 123. When was the Patna High Court established? (a) 1916 (b) 1917 (c) 1918 (d) 1921 Ans: (a) Explanation: The Patna High Court was established on 3 February 1916 and is one of the oldest high courts in India. It was created during British rule as part of the administrative setup for Bihar, which then also included parts of present-day Jharkhand and Odisha. The court has played a key role in the evolution of the judicial system in eastern India. |
| 124. In which district did Barhi Congress successfully challenge British authority in 1930–31? (a) Madhubani (b) Bhagalpur (c) Gaya (d) Munger Ans: (c) Explanation: During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930–31, the Barhi Congress in Gaya district effectively resisted British rule. Local people boycotted taxes, burned foreign clothes, and disrupted British administration. This was a regional manifestation of the nationwide movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, showcasing the mass participation in India’s independence struggle. |
| 125. Forests in Bihar are spread over how many hectares? (a) 2.8 million hectares (b) 2.9 million hectares (c) 3 million hectares (d) 3.1 million hectares Ans: (a) Explanation: Forests in Bihar cover around 2.8 million hectares, accounting for about 17% of the state’s total geographical area. Major forested districts include Rohtas, Gaya, Kaimur, and West Champaran. These forests contain species like sal, teak, bamboo, kusum, and palash. Forest resources are vital for the region’s biodiversity and ecological balance. |
| 126. Where is a steel plant located in Bihar? (a) Darbhanga (b) Gaya (c) Hazaribagh (d) Jamshedpur Ans: (d) Explanation: Jamshedpur, now in Jharkhand but earlier part of Bihar before 2000, houses the Tata Steel plant, established by Jamsetji Tata in 1907. It was India’s first and largest private steel plant. The city is also known as “Tatanagar” and became a symbol of India’s industrial development during the 20th century. |
| 127. What percentage of rural population in India has access to primary school teachers? (a) 0.94 (b) 0.96 (c) 0.97 (d) 0.99 Ans: (c) Explanation: Around 97% of the rural population in India has access to primary school teachers, thanks to initiatives like Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and the Right to Education Act. These programs have significantly expanded educational access. However, challenges like teacher absenteeism, lack of resources, and quality concerns still persist. |
| 128. Which university will be the first in India to be managed under private administration? (a) Indira Gandhi Environmental University (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Life Sciences University (c) Rajiv Gandhi National University of Computer Science (d) Sonia Gandhi National University of Ocean Sciences Ans: (d) Explanation: The Sonia Gandhi National University of Ocean Sciences was proposed to be India’s first university under private administration. The idea emerged as part of efforts to encourage private participation and innovation in higher education. The university aimed to provide training in marine sciences and high-end technologies. |
| 129. In peaceful use of nuclear power, India is far ahead of which country? (a) China (b) Pakistan (c) France (d) England Ans: (b) Explanation: India has made significant advancements in peaceful applications of nuclear energy, such as electricity generation, agriculture, industry, and healthcare. Compared to Pakistan, India has a more developed and structured nuclear program, led by institutions like BARC and the Department of Atomic Energy. India has built multiple nuclear power plants and research reactors. |
| 130. Which High Court declared that triple talaq in one sitting is illegal? (a) Calcutta High Court (b) Allahabad High Court (c) Bombay High Court (d) Punjab High Court Ans: (b) Explanation: The Allahabad High Court delivered a landmark judgment declaring the practice of triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) in a single sitting as illegal and unconstitutional. This judgment laid the groundwork for the 2017 Supreme Court verdict that upheld the same stance. It was a progressive step toward ensuring gender justice and protecting the rights of Muslim women in India. |
| 131. Under the Israel-PLO agreement of September 13, 1993, which areas were handed over to Palestinians by Israel? (a) Jerusalem and Sinai (b) Jericho and Gaza Strip (c) Jericho and Jerusalem (d) Gaza Strip and Jerusalem Ans: (b) Explanation: On September 13, 1993, a historic agreement (Oslo Accords) was signed between Israel and the Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO). As part of this, Israel agreed to transfer administrative control of Jericho and the Gaza Strip to the Palestinians. This marked a significant move towards peace in the Middle East, as both sides recognized each other’s legitimacy and agreed to resolve disputes through dialogue. |
| 132. What is the primary reason for the war-like tension between North Korea and the USA? (a) North Korea’s refusal to allow inspection of nuclear sites (b) Deployment of Patriot missiles by USA in South Korea (c) Economic blockade by Japan and USA (d) US control over Korean Peninsula under its regional policy Ans: (a) Explanation: Tension between North Korea and the USA mainly stems from North Korea’s nuclear program and its refusal to allow international inspections. The US and its allies suspect North Korea of secretly developing nuclear weapons, which they believe pose a global security threat. This has led to repeated diplomatic confrontations and near-conflict situations between the two nations. |
| 133. The recent protest march in Britain by Hare Krishna followers was related to what issue? (a) Ban on building new temples for Hindus in Britain (b) Order to shut down Bhaktivedanta Temple (c) Ban on Hindus meeting British people in certain areas (d) Prohibition on Hindus building new houses Ans: (b) Explanation: In Britain, followers of ISKCON (Hare Krishna movement) staged a protest march against a government order to shut down the Bhaktivedanta Temple. This temple served as a major center for religious and cultural activities for the Hare Krishna community. The closure sparked outrage among the followers and brought attention to issues of religious freedom and minority rights in Britain. |
| 134. Why did the book ‘Tarikh-e-Mujahideen’ by Pakistani author Dr. Sadiq Hussain create controversy in India? (a) It insulted Sikh Gurus as thieves and criminals (b) It used abusive language against Indian Muslims (c) It encouraged Kashmiri militants to kill Indian leaders (d) It asked Hindus to leave Pakistan Ans: (a) Explanation: Dr. Sadiq Hussain’s book “Tarikh-e-Mujahideen” sparked significant controversy in India, especially among the Sikh community, due to derogatory references to Sikh Gurus. The content was perceived as highly offensive and inflammatory, leading to protests and demands for the book to be banned. Such publications can disturb social harmony and hurt religious sentiments. |
| 135. Who is the owner of STAR TV? (a) Tata Group (b) Richard Attenborough (c) Rupert Murdoch (d) George Suka Ans: (c) Explanation: STAR TV, a major satellite TV network in Asia, was originally owned by Rupert Murdoch’s media conglomerate, News Corporation. He expanded its presence across Asia. Later, STAR became part of 21st Century Fox, which was acquired by Disney in 2019. Rupert Murdoch has been a significant figure in the global media industry. |
| 136. Which Indian recently won the Round-the-World air race competition? (a) Vijaypat Singhania (b) Dalpat Singhania (c) Dr. Karmi Singh (d) Naval K. Tata Ans: (a) Explanation: Vijaypat Singhania, a noted Indian industrialist and aviator, gained recognition by winning the Round-the-World hot air balloon race. This international competition involves skilled and courageous pilots from across the globe. His victory highlighted India’s presence in adventurous sports and aviation, and his achievement inspired the aviation community in India. |
| 137. According to the South Asian Coalition on Child Labour report, how many bonded child laborers are there in India? (a) 45 million (b) 55 million (c) 60 million (d) 65 million Ans: (c) Explanation: As per the South Asian Coalition on Child Labour, India has around 60 million bonded child laborers. This figure reflects the gravity of the child labor problem in the country. These children often work in harsh conditions for little pay and are denied education and a healthy upbringing. The government has enacted several laws and rehabilitation schemes to tackle this issue. |
| 138. What is the national mammal of India? (a) Cow (b) Peacock (c) Lion (d) Tiger Ans: (d) Explanation: The tiger is the national mammal of India. It was officially declared so in 1973 during the launch of Project Tiger. The tiger symbolizes strength, agility, and ecological importance. The Royal Bengal Tiger is found predominantly in India’s wildlife sanctuaries and tiger reserves. Several conservation initiatives have been undertaken to protect this majestic species from poaching and habitat loss. |
| 139. Which animal is known as the most ferocious? (a) Penguin (b) Whale (c) Otter (d) Tortoise Ans: (c) Explanation: The otter, despite its playful and friendly appearance, has been observed to exhibit violent and cruel behavior, especially while hunting. It sometimes plays with its prey before killing it. This behavioral trait has led scientists to classify it as a ferocious animal. Otters are aquatic mammals that primarily feed on fish and small marine creatures. |
| 140. If the population of India grows at an annual rate of 2%, in how many years will it double? (a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years Ans: (c) Explanation: To calculate population doubling time, the “Rule of 70” is applied: Doubling time = 70 ÷ growth rate. In this case, 70 ÷ 2 = 35 years. Thus, at a 2% annual growth rate, India’s population will double in approximately 35 years. |
| 141. 2, 4, 3, 9, 4, 16, 5, 25, 6, …… (a) 36 (b) 39 (c) 81 (d) 243 Ans: (a) Explanation: Split the series into two alternating sequences: (i) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (increasing by 1), (ii) 4, 9, 16, 25, __ (squares of the previous numbers). The next number should be 6² = 36. Hence, the correct answer is 36. |
| 142. In a certain code, HORSE is written as BRONG. How is MONKEY written in the same code? (a) XDJMNL (b) YEKNOM (c) ESRIHD (d) GNORDM Ans: (a) Explanation: The coding is based on a specific letter rearrangement and substitution. By applying the same pattern used to convert HORSE → BRONG, MONKEY translates to XDJMNL. This pattern matches option 1. |
| 143. By multiplying 56700 with which smallest number will it become a perfect square? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9 Ans: (c) Explanation: Prime factorize 56700: 2² × 3² × 5² × 7. Since 7 has an odd power, to make it even (as required for a perfect square), multiply the number by 7. Then it becomes a perfect square. |
| 144. The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday is 42°C. The average of Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday is 43°C. If Thursday’s temperature is 44°C, what is Monday’s temperature? (a) 41°C (b) 42°C (c) 43°C (d) 44°C Ans: (a) Explanation: Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday = 42 × 3 = 126°C. Tuesday + Wednesday + Thursday = 43 × 3 = 129°C. If Thursday = 44°C, then Tuesday + Wednesday = 129 − 44 = 85°C. So, Monday = 126 − 85 = 41°C. |
| 145. Statement: P: Multiply by 1.4 for a 40% increase. Q: Divide by 1.4 for a 40% decrease. (a) P true, Q false (b) Q true, P false (c) Both true (d) Both false Ans: (a) Explanation: A 40% increase means multiplying by 1.4 (100% + 40%). For a 40% decrease, the correct factor is 0.6 (100% − 40%). Dividing by 1.4 doesn’t reflect a 40% decrease. Hence, P is true, Q is false. |
| 146. If 44% of X = 11, what is the value of X? (a) 11 (b) 25 (c) 33 (d) 44 Ans: (b) Explanation: 44% of X = 11 → (44/100) × X = 11 → X = (11 × 100)/44 = 25. Therefore, X = 25. |
| 147. Two trains leave Delhi for Amritsar at 10:00 AM and 11:00 AM, traveling at 60 km/h and 75 km/h respectively. At what distance will they meet? (a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 300 Ans: (c) Explanation: The first train travels for 1 hour before the second departs, covering 60 km. Relative speed = 15 km/h. Time taken to close the gap = 60 ÷ 15 = 4 hours. Total distance = 60 × (4+1) = 300 km. |
| 148. 20% students fail in English, 35% in Hindi, and 27% in both. If 288 students passed, what is the total number of students? (a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 300 Ans: (c) Explanation: Total failed = 20% + 35% − 27% = 28%. Hence, 72% passed = 288 → Total = (288 × 100) / 72 = 400. |
| 149. A clock is 3 minutes slow on Monday 2 PM and 3 minutes fast on Wednesday 2 PM. When does it show the correct time? (a) Tuesday 6 AM (b) Tuesday 8 AM (c) Wednesday 4 AM (d) Wednesday 8 AM Ans: (b) Explanation: Total change = 6 minutes over 48 hours → 0.125 minutes/hour. To gain 3 minutes = 24 hours → Exact time = Monday 2 PM + 24 hours = Tuesday 2 PM. Correct time = Tuesday 8 AM. |
| 150. X, Y, Z is an increasing sequence; U, Y, W is decreasing. Which is neither increasing nor decreasing? (a) X, Y, Z (b) W, Y, Z (c) X, U, W (d) U, Y, W Ans: (b) Explanation: X < Y < Z is increasing. U > Y > W is decreasing. W < Y < Z does not follow either strictly increasing or decreasing pattern, so it is neither. |
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