Table of Contents
38th BPSC Pre Exam 24.07.1994 MCQs in English
Indian History (Ancient India)
1. The Indus Valley Civilization belongs to which of the following periods?
(a) Historical period
(b) Prehistoric period
(c) Post-historical period
(d) Proto-historic period
Answer: (d) Proto-historic period
2. The period from 800 to 600 BCE is associated with which era?
(a) Brahmana period
(b) Sutra period
(c) Ramayana period
(d) Mahabharata period
Answer: (a) Brahmana period
3. Why is Boghazkoi significant?
(a) Inscriptions found there mention Vedic gods and goddesses
(b) It was a major trade center between Central Asia and Tibet
(c) The original texts of the Vedas were composed there
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Inscriptions found there mention Vedic gods and goddesses
4. The Gayatri Mantra is found in which book?
(a) Upanishads
(b) Bhagavad Gita
(c) Rigveda
(d) Yajurveda
Answer: (c) Rigveda
5. During the Sangam Age, why was Uraiyur famous?
(a) Important center for spice trade
(b) Important center for cotton trade
(c) Major hub of foreign trade
(d) Important center of internal trade
Answer: (b) Important center for cotton trade
6. Who was the founder of the Ajivika sect?
(a) Upali
(b) Ananda
(c) Rahulbhadra
(d) Makkhali Gosala
Answer: (d) Makkhali Gosala
7. Who contributed significantly to the development of the Bhagavata sect?
(a) Persians
(b) Indo-Greeks
(c) Kushanas
(d) Guptas
Answer: (c) Kushanas
8. Which inscription proves that Chandragupta’s influence extended to western India?
(a) Kalinga inscription
(b) Ashoka’s Girnar inscription
(c) Rudradaman’s Junagadh inscription
(d) Ashoka’s Sopara inscription
Answer: (c) Rudradaman’s Junagadh inscription
9. Which is the only pillar where Ashoka refers to himself as the Emperor of Magadha?
(a) Minor pillar at Maski
(b) Rummindei pillar
(c) Rani pillar
(d) Bhanu pillar
Answer: (a) Minor pillar at Maski
10. Name the source that is silent about ancient Indian trade routes:
(a) Sangam literature
(b) Milinda Panha
(c) Jataka tales
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
11. Which ruling dynasty granted the most villages to temples and Brahmins?
(a) Gupta dynasty
(b) Pala dynasty
(c) Rashtrakuta dynasty
(d) Pratihara dynasty
Answer: (c) Rashtrakuta dynasty
12. During which period was the concept of untouchability clearly mentioned?
(a) Rigvedic period
(b) Later Vedic period
(c) Post-Gupta period
(d) During the Dharmashastra period
Answer: (d) During the Dharmashastra period
13. Who was the first person to be granted an Iqta by Muhammad Ghori in India?
(a) Taj-ud-din Yalduz
(b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(c) Shams-ud-din Iltutmish
(d) Nasir-ud-din Qubacha
Answer: (b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Indian History (Medieval India)
14. Under which Sultan did the Khalisa land develop on a large scale?
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Answer: (b) Alauddin Khalji
15. The Sultanate period coins—Tanka, Shashgani, and Jital—were made of which metals?
(a) Silver, Copper
(b) Gold, Silver, Copper
(c) Silver, Zinc, Copper
(d) Gold, Zinc, Copper
Answer: (b) Gold, Silver, Copper
16. Who composed the work Barahmasa?
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Imami
(c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi
(d) Raskhan
Answer: (a) Amir Khusrau
17. What was the main feature of the Vijayanagara Empire’s financial system?
(a) Surplus rent
(b) Land revenue
(c) Income from ports
(d) Currency system
Answer: (b) Land revenue
18. What was the main reason for Babur’s victory in the Battle of Panipat?
(a) His cavalry force
(b) His military skills
(c) The Tulughma strategy
(d) Disunity among Afghans
Answer: (c) The Tulughma strategy
19. The Zabti system was the innovation of whom?
(a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(b) Sikandar Lodi
(c) Sher Shah
(d) Akbar
Answer: (d) Akbar
20. What was Jawabit related to?
(a) State laws
(b) Laws controlling the Mansabdari system
(c) Laws related to minting coins
(d) Taxes related to agriculture
Answer: (a) State laws
21. What was the root cause of the conflict between the Shah of Iran and the Mughal emperors?
(a) Kabul
(b) Kandahar
(c) Kunduz
(d) Ghazni
Answer: (b) Kandahar
22. Who introduced the Do Aspa, Sih Aspa system?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer: (c) Shah Jahan
23. The Saranjam system was related to which of the following?
(a) Maratha land revenue system
(b) Taluqdari system
(c) Qutub Shahi administration
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Maratha land revenue system
24. Where did the English establish their first factory in India in 1612?
(a) Goa
(b) Hooghly in Bengal
(c) Umarkot
(d) Surat
Answer: (d) Surat
25. Who founded the Ramosi Peasant Force in Maharashtra?
(a) Justice Ranade
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer: (c) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
26. Who repealed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Minto
Answer: (a) Lord Ripon
27. Who started the newspaper Free Hindustan in America?
(a) Ramnath Puri
(b) G. D. Kumar
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Taraknath Das
Answer: (d) Taraknath Das
28. What was the most important cause that sparked the Ghadar Movement?
(a) Arrest of Lala Hardayal
(b) Komagata Maru incident
(c) Outbreak of the First World War
(d) Hanging of Kartar Singh Sarabha
Answer: (b) Komagata Maru incident
29. At which session did the Home Rule supporters successfully demonstrate their political strength?
(a) 1916 Lucknow Session of the Congress
(b) 1920 All India Trade Union Session in Bombay
(c) 1918 First A.U.P. Kisan Sabha
(d) 1938 Nagpur Session
Answer: (a) 1916 Lucknow Session of the Congress
30. Who was the author of The Indian Unrest?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Valentine Chirol
Answer: (d) Valentine Chirol
31. Who participated in the Satyagraha led by Gandhi in Ahmedabad in 1917–18?
(a) Farmers
(b) Industrial workers
(c) Public
(d) Mill workers
Answer: (d) Mill workers
32. In which city was the 1920 Khilafat Committee meeting held, where Gandhi was requested to lead the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Lahore
(c) Allahabad
(d) Karachi
Answer: (a) Lucknow
33. What was the aim of the Eka Movement in Awadh?
(a) To stop paying rent to the government
(b) To protect landlords’ rights
(c) To end the Satyagraha
(d) To pay equal rent during Kharif and Rabi seasons
Answer: (d) To pay equal rent during Kharif and Rabi seasons
34. ‘Nai-Dhobi Bandh’ was a form of social boycott in 1919 by –
(a) Peasants in Pratapgarh district
(b) A movement by ascetics
(c) Action by landlords against lower castes
(d) Lower castes against contractors
Answer: (a) Peasants in Pratapgarh district
35. Who conceptualized and founded the INA (Indian National Army)?
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Dr. Mohan Singh
(c) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(d) Bhagat Singh
Answer: (b) Dr. Mohan Singh
36. In which of its executive committee meetings did the Congress adopt the policy of abolishing land ownership?
(a) Executive Committee 1937
(b) Executive Committee 1942
(c) Executive Committee 1945
(d) Executive Committee 1946
Answer: (c) Executive Committee 1945
37. When did the Chotanagpur tribal revolt take place?
(a) 1807–1808
(b) 1920
(c) 1958–59
(d) 1989
Answer: (a) 1807–1808
38. Gandhi’s Champaran Satyagraha was related to –
(a) Zamindari system
(b) Tinkathia system
(c) Janmis
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Tinkathia system
39. The Ulgulan revolt was associated with –
(a) Santhal
(b) Kacha Naga
(c) Kol
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer: (d) Birsa Munda
Indian Polity and Constitution
40. The Constitution of India was adopted by –
(a) Constituent Assembly
(b) British Parliament
(c) Governor-General
(d) Indian Parliament
Answer: (a) Constituent Assembly
41. India has secular sovereignty because the Preamble of the Constitution begins with –
(a) The words “Democratic India”
(b) The words “Democracy of the People”
(c) The words “People’s Democracy”
(d) The words “We, the People of India”
Answer: (d) The words “We, the People of India”
42. A money bill can be introduced –
(a) Only in the Rajya Sabha
(b) Only in the Lok Sabha
(c) Simultaneously in both Houses
(d) In a joint session of both Houses
Answer: (b) Only in the Lok Sabha
43. The fundamental rights of Indian citizens are described in –
(a) Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution
(b) Articles 13 to 36 of the Constitution
(c) Articles 15 to 39 of the Constitution
(d) Articles 16 to 40 of the Constitution
Answer: (a) Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution
44. Panchayati Raj is a subject of the –
(a) Concurrent List
(b) Union List
(c) State List
(d) Residuary List
Answer: (c) State List
45. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution directs the state governments to organize village panchayats?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 498
(d) Article 51
Answer: (b) Article 40
46. Judicial review means that the Supreme Court –
(a) Has final authority on all matters
(b) Can impeach the President
(c) Can review decisions made by High Courts
(d) Can declare a state law unconstitutional
Answer: (d) Can declare a state law unconstitutional
47. The directive ideals of a welfare state are described in –
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) The chapter on Fundamental Rights
(c) The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
(d) The Preamble of the Constitution
Answer: (a) The Directive Principles of State Policy
48. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by –
(a) All members of Parliament
(b) The people directly
(c) All members of the Lok Sabha
(d) Members of the majority parties in the Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) All members of the Lok Sabha
49. The President of India can be removed from office by –
(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Lok Sabha
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Parliament
Answer: (d) The Parliament
50. For how long can a person remain a minister in India without being a member of either House of Parliament?
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) No time limit
Answer: (b) Six months
51. The maximum interval between two sessions of Parliament should not be more than –
(a) Four months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) As decided by the President
Answer: (b) Six months
52. Indian democracy is based on the fact that –
(a) The Constitution is written
(b) Fundamental Rights are granted
(c) People have the right to choose and change their governments
(d) There are Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: (c) People have the right to choose and change their governments
53. The President can declare a national emergency on the grounds of –
(a) Armed rebellion
(b) External aggression
(c) War
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above
54. Regarding representation in the Lok Sabha, which two states rank second and third in terms of number of seats?
(a) Maharashtra and West Bengal
(b) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(d) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (a) Maharashtra and West Bengal
Physical Geography
55. The longest year occurs on –
(a) Pluto
(b) Jupiter
(c) Neptune
(d) Earth
Answer: (a) Pluto
56. The development of ‘Terra Rossa’ takes place in a region composed of –
(a) Limestone
(b) Syenite
(c) Granite
(d) Sandstone
Answer: (a) Limestone
57. ‘Mauna Loa’ is an example of –
(a) Active volcano
(b) Dormant volcano
(c) Extinct volcano
(d) Plateau in a volcanic region
Answer: (a) Active volcano
58. Which of the following statements about sedimentary rocks is false?
(a) Their formation depends on heat and pressure
(b) They are crystalline
(c) They are deposited in layers
(d) They cannot form in water
Answer: (b) They are crystalline
59. ‘Tin’ is found in –
(a) Placer deposits
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Acidic igneous rocks
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
60. The Lakshadweep group of islands is –
(a) Coral in origin
(b) Volcanic in origin
(c) Formed by soil deposition
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Coral in origin
61. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights due to –
(a) Condensation
(b) Radiation
(c) Absorption
(d) Conduction
Answer: (b) Radiation
62. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Mediterranean region – Summer rainfall
(b) Mediterranean region – Thunderstorm rainfall in the afternoon
(c) Monsoon region – Heavy rainfall throughout the year
(d) Desert region – Winter rainfall
Answer: (c) Monsoon region – Heavy rainfall throughout the year
Indian Geography
63. The Bhabar region located south of the ‘Shivalik’ rock group is an example of –
(a) Interior land location
(b) Intermontane location
(c) Piedmont location
(d) Non-maritime location
Answer: (c) Piedmont location
64. India extends between –
(a) 37°17′53″ N and 8°6′28″ S
(b) 37°17′53″ N and 8°4′28″ S
(c) 37°17′53″ N and 8°28′ N
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
65. India’s area is 2.2% of the world’s total area, but it accounts for –
(a) 16% of the total human population
(b) 17% of the total human population
(c) 18% of the total human population
(d) 28% of the total human population
Answer: (b) 17% of the total human population
66. The depth of the alluvial soil of the Ganga below the land surface is approximately –
(a) Up to 6000 meters
(b) Up to 600 meters
(c) Up to 800 meters
(d) Up to 100 meters
Answer: (c) Up to 800 meters
67. The Indian monsoon indicates seasonal displacement caused by –
(a) Differential heat capacity of land and sea
(b) Cold winds from Central Asia
(c) High temperature uniformity
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Differential heat capacity of land and sea
68. The river that originates near Lake Manasarovar in Tibet is –
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Sutlej
(c) Indus
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
69. Hundru Waterfall is formed on –
(a) Indravati River
(b) Kaveri River
(c) Subarnarekha River
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Subarnarekha River
70. In the Himalayas, the snow line lies between –
(a) 4500 to 6000 meters in the east
(b) 4000 to 5800 meters in the west
(c) 4500 to 6000 meters in the west
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) 4500 to 6000 meters in the east
71. The coastline of India is –
(a) 6,200 kilometers long
(b) 6,100 kilometers long
(c) 5,985 kilometers long
(d) 6,175 kilometers long
Answer: (d) 6,175 kilometers long
72. Which of the following is not a cash crop?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Cotton
(c) Jute
(d) Wheat
Answer: (d) Wheat
73. India is the largest producer and consumer of –
(a) Rice
(b) Tea
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Pulses
Answer: (d) Pulses
74. Identify the mineral-rich state in India –
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Odisha
Answer: (d) Odisha
75. Where was the first fertilizer plant of India established?
(a) Nangal
(b) Sindri
(c) Alwaye
(d) Trombay
Answer: (b) Sindri
76. The most populous city in India is –
(a) Bangalore
(b) Kolkata
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Madras (Chennai)
Answer: (d) Madras (Chennai)
77. Which of the following industrial towns is located on the Chotanagpur Plateau?
(a) Bhilai
(b) Ranchi
(c) Asansol
(d) Durgapur
Answer: (b) Ranchi
78. The Damodar River originates from –
(a) Tibet
(b) Chotanagpur
(c) Near Nainital
(d) Western slope of Someshwar Hills
Answer: (b) Chotanagpur
World Geography
79. ‘Shahtoosh’, considered the most beautiful, warmest, and lightest wool in the world, is produced in –
(a) Nepal
(b) Uzbekistan
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh
Answer: (c) China
80. Which of the following continents is the largest by area?
(a) Europe
(b) Africa
(c) North America
(d) South America
Answer: (b) Africa
81. The title “Mistress of the Eastern Seas” refers to –
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan
(C) Burma (Myanmar)
(D) India
Answer: (D) India
Economy
82. The Planning Commission is a –
(A) Ministry
(B) Government department
(C) Advisory body
(D) Autonomous corporation
Answer: (C) Advisory body
83. The planned economy in India is based on –
(A) Socialist system
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Capitalist system
(D) Gandhian system
Answer: (B) Mixed economy
84. The largest source of income in India is –
(A) Direct taxes
(B) Sales tax
(C) Railways
(D) Octroi tax
Answer: (A) Direct taxes
85. India’s progress has been satisfactory in terms of –
(A) Growth in national income
(B) Reduction in unemployment
(C) Per capita income
(D) Reduction in inequality
Answer: (A) Growth in national income
86. Which industry was worst affected due to the partition of India?
(A) Cotton and sugar industry
(B) Engineering and cement industry
(C) Jute and cotton industry
(D) Paper and iron industry
Answer: (C) Jute and cotton industry
87. The Eighth Five-Year Plan gives priority to –
(A) Employment generation
(B) Increasing imports
(C) Industrial expansion
(D) Press freedom
Answer: (A) Employment generation
88. Which industry employs the most people in India?
(A) Jute industry
(B) Iron industry
(C) Textile industry
(D) Sugar industry
Answer: (C) Textile industry
89. The main source of national income in India is –
(A) Industry
(B) Agriculture
(C) Forests
(D) Foreign trade
Answer: (B) Agriculture
Physics
90. In a typical dry cell, the electrolyte is –
(A) Zinc
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Manganese dioxide
Answer: (C) Ammonium chloride
91. A dynamo –
(A) Converts electrical energy into kinetic energy
(B) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
(D) Produces mechanical energy
Answer: (B) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
92. The sky appears blue because –
(A) Blue light is more abundant in sunlight than other colors
(B) Shorter wavelengths are scattered more than longer ones by the atmosphere
(C) The eye is more sensitive to blue color
(D) The atmosphere absorbs more of longer wavelengths
Answer: (B) Shorter wavelengths are scattered more than longer ones by the atmosphere
93. One micron is equal to –
(A) 1/10 millimeter
(B) 1/100 millimeter
(C) 1/1000 millimeter
(D) 1/10,000 millimeter
Answer: (C) 1/1000 millimeter
94. A characteristic of a superconductor is –
(A) High permeability
(B) Low permeability
(C) Zero permeability
(D) Infinite permeability
Answer: (D) Infinite permeability
95. The spherical shape of a raindrop is due to –
(A) Density of the liquid
(B) Surface tension
(C) Atmospheric pressure
(D) Gravity
Answer: (B) Surface tension
96. If you open the door of a refrigerator in a room –
(A) You can cool the room by a few degrees
(B) You can cool the room to refrigerator temperature
(C) Eventually, you can slightly warm the room
(D) The room will neither warm nor cool
Answer: (C) Eventually, you can slightly warm the room
Chemistry
97. Radium was obtained from which mineral?
(A) Limestone
(B) Pitchblende
(C) Rutile
(D) Hematite
Answer: (B) Pitchblende
98. The principle of the atomic bomb is based on –
(A) Nuclear fusion
(B) Nuclear fission
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Nuclear fission
99. The formula of Plaster of Paris is –
(A) CaSO₄
(B) CaSO₄•H₂O
(C) 2CaSO₄•H₂O
(D) CaSO₄•½H₂O
Answer: (D) CaSO₄•½H₂O
100. Lemon tastes sour due to the presence of –
(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Tartaric acid
(D) Citric acid
Answer: (D) Citric acid
101. Air is a –
(A) Compound
(B) Element
(C) Mixture
(D) Electrolyte
Answer: (C) Mixture
102. Which of the following is false about bleaching powder?
(A) It is highly soluble in water
(B) It is a light yellow powder
(C) It acts as an oxidizing agent
(D) It releases chlorine gas on reacting with dilute acid
Answer: (A) It is highly soluble in water
103. An amalgam is –
(A) A highly colored alloy
(B) A carbon-containing alloy
(C) A mercury-containing alloy
(D) An alloy highly resistant to abrasion
Answer: (C) A mercury-containing alloy
104. The common type of coal is –
(A) Bituminous
(B) Semi-bituminous
(C) Anthracite
(D) Coke
Answer: (A) Bituminous
105. The age of the oldest rock group is estimated by –
(A) Potassium-Argon method
(B) C-14 method
(C) Ra-Si method
(D) Uranium-Lead method
Answer: (D) Uranium-Lead method
Biology, Environment-Ecology & Agriculture
106. Why do fishes die when taken out of water?
(A) They receive too much oxygen
(B) Their body temperature rises
(C) They are unable to breathe
(D) They cannot move without water
Answer: (C) They are unable to breathe
107. How do members of a honeybee colony recognize each other?
(A) By smell
(B) By sight
(C) By dance
(D) By touch
Answer: (A) By smell
108. How many teeth in the human lifespan develop twice?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 28
Answer: (C) 20
109. The bone of the human leg is –
(A) Hollow
(B) Porous
(C) Solid
(D) Peg-like
Answer: (A) Hollow
110. How many bones are there in the human skull?
(A) 8
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 34
Answer: (A) 8
111. The immediate ancestor of modern humans is –
(A) Java man
(B) Cro-Magnon man
(C) Neanderthal man
(D) Peking man
Answer: (B) Cro-Magnon man
112. A plant similar to the mother plant is obtained from –
(A) Seeds
(B) Stem cutting
(C) None of these
(D) Both of these
Answer: (B) Stem cutting
113. Which substance is found in more than 80% of cells?
(A) Protein
(B) Fat
(C) Minerals
(D) Water
Answer: (D) Water
114. Insulin is obtained from –
(A) Rhizome of ginger
(B) Roots of dahlia
(C) Balsam flower
(D) Tuber of potato
Answer: (B) Roots of dahlia
115. The largest flower in the world is –
(A) Lotus
(B) Rafflesia
(C) Giant cactus
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Rafflesia
116. Stem cutting is generally used for the propagation of –
(A) Banana
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Mango
(D) Cotton
Answer: (B) Sugarcane
117. The pea plant is a –
(A) Herb
(B) Flower
(C) Shrub
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Herb
118. The main factor of evolution is –
(A) Mutation
(B) Acquired traits
(C) Sexual reproduction
(D) Natural selection
Answer: (D) Natural selection
119. Soil conservation is the process in which –
(A) Infertile soil is converted into fertile soil
(B) Soil is rotated
(C) Soil erosion occurs
(D) Soil is protected from damage
Answer: (D) Soil is protected from damage
Science & Technology
120. Har Gobind Khorana was honored for the invention of –
(A) Synthesis of proteins
(B) Synthesis of genes
(C) Synthesis of nitrogenous bases
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Synthesis of genes
State Specific (Bihar)
121. What was the objective of the Barhiya Tal protest in Munger?
(A) Demand for return of Bakasht land
(B) End exploitation of Muslim farmers
(C) Abolition of Zamindari system
(D) To start a “class war”
Answer: (A) Demand for return of Bakasht land
122. When was Bihar separated from Bengal?
(A) In 1911
(B) In 1912
(C) In 1913
(D) In 1914
Answer: (B) In 1912
123. When was the Patna High Court established?
(A) In 1916
(B) In 1917
(C) In 1918
(D) In 1921
Answer: (B) In 1917
124. In which district did the Barahi Congress successfully disrupt British rule in 1930 and 1931?
(A) Madhubani
(B) Bhagalpur
(C) Gaya
(D) Munger
Answer: (D) Munger
125. Forests in Bihar spread over –
(A) 28 lakh hectares
(B) 29 lakh hectares
(C) 30 lakh hectares
(D) 31 lakh hectares
Answer: (B) 29 lakh hectares
126. A steel plant in Bihar is located at –
(A) Darbhanga
(B) Gaya
(C) Hazaribagh
(D) Jamshedpur
Answer: (D) Jamshedpur
Current Affairs (1994)
127. What percentage of rural population in India has access to primary teacher facilities?
(A) 94%
(B) 96%
(C) 97%
(D) 99%
Answer: (C) 97%
128. Which was the first university in India to operate under private management?
(A) Indira Gandhi Environmental University
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru University of Life Sciences
(C) Rajiv Gandhi National University of Computer Science
(D) Sonia Gandhi National University of Marine Sciences
Answer: (A) Indira Gandhi Environmental University
129. In peaceful uses of nuclear power, India is far ahead of which country?
(A) China
(B) Pakistan
(C) France
(D) England
Answer: (B) Pakistan
130. Which High Court ruled that pronouncing triple talaq at once is illegal?
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Allahabad High Court
(C) Bombay High Court
(D) Punjab High Court
Answer: (B) Allahabad High Court
131. Under the Israel-PLO Agreement on September 13, 1993, Israel handed over which areas to the Palestinians?
(A) Jerusalem and Sinai
(B) Jericho and Gaza Strip
(C) Jericho and Jerusalem
(D) Gaza Strip and Jerusalem
Answer: (B) Jericho and Gaza Strip
132. What caused near-war tension between North Korea and the USA?
(A) North Korea refused inspection of its nuclear sites
(B) USA deployed Patriot missiles in South Korea
(C) Japan and USA imposed economic blockade against North Korea
(D) USA tried to dominate the Korean Peninsula under its regional policy
Answer: (A) North Korea refused inspection of its nuclear sites
133. Recently, thousands of Hare Krishna devotees in Britain participated in a protest march against the government. What was it about?
(A) Ban on building new Hindu temples in Britain
(B) Order to close the Bhaktivedanta Temple
(C) Ban on Hindus meeting British citizens in certain areas
(D) Ban on Hindus constructing new homes
Answer: (B) Order to close the Bhaktivedanta Temple
134. The book Tareekh-e-Mujahideen by Pakistani author Dr. Sadiq Hussain caused outrage in India because –
(A) Sikh Gurus were called thieves, goons, and dacoits
(B) Indian Muslims were abused and ridiculed
(C) Kashmiri militants were incited to kill Indian leaders
(D) Hindus were told to leave Pakistan
Answer: (A) Sikh Gurus were called thieves, goons, and dacoits
135. Who owns Star TV?
(A) Tata Group
(B) Richard Attenborough
(C) Rupert Murdoch
(D) George Suka
Answer: (C) Rupert Murdoch
136. Which Indian recently won the Round-the-World Air Race?
(A) Vijaypat Singhania
(B) Dalpat Singhania
(C) Dr. Karmi Singh
(D) Naval K. Tata
Answer: (A) Vijaypat Singhania
Miscellaneous
137. According to the South Asian Coalition on Child Labour report, what is the number of bonded child labourers in India?
(a) 4.5 crore
(b) 5.5 crore
(c) 6 crore
(d) 6.5 crore
Answer: (b) 5.5 crore
138. What is the national mammal of India?
(a) Cow
(b) Peacock
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer: (d) Tiger
139. Which of the following is a ferocious animal?
(a) Penguin
(b) Whale
(c) Otter
(d) Tortoise
Answer: (c) Otter
Mathematics and Mental Ability Test
140. If the population of India grows at an annual rate of 2%, in how many years will it double?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years
Answer: (b) 30 years
141. What number will come in the blank below?
2, 4, 3, 9, 4, 16, 5, 25, 6, ______
(a) 36
(b) 39
(c) 81
(d) 243
Answer: (a) 36
142. In a code, HORSE is written as BRONG. How will MONKEY be written in that code?
(a) XDJMNL
(b) YEKNOM
(c) ESRIHD
(d) GNORDM
Answer: (d) GNORDM
143. By multiplying 56700 with which smallest number will it become a perfect square?
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer: (c) 7
144. The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday is 42°C. The average temperature of Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday is 43°C. If Thursday’s temperature is 44°C, what was the temperature on Monday?
(a) 41°C
(b) 42°C
(c) 43°C
(d) 44°C
Answer: (a) 41°C
145. Consider the following statements –
P: To increase a number by 40%, it is sufficient to multiply it by 1.4.
Q: To decrease a number by 40%, it is sufficient to divide it by 1.4.
(a) P is true but Q is false
(b) Q is true but P is false
(c) Both P and Q are true
(d) Both P and Q are false
Answer: (a) P is true but Q is false
146. If 44% of X = 11, then what is the value of X?
(a) 11
(b) 25
(c) 33
(d) 44
Answer: (c) 25
147. Two trains start from Delhi for Amritsar at 10 AM and 11 AM respectively, at speeds of 60 km/h and 75 km/h. At what distance from Delhi will they meet?
(a) 150 km
(b) 200 km
(c) 250 km
(d) 300 km
Answer: (b) 200 km
148. In an exam, 20% students failed in English, 35% in Hindi, and 27% in both. If 288 students passed, what was the total number of students?
(a) 600
(b) 500
(c) 400
(d) 300
Answer: (a) 600
149. My watch is 3 minutes slow on Monday at 2 PM and 3 minutes fast on Wednesday at 2 PM. When will it show the correct time?
(a) Tuesday 6 AM
(b) Tuesday 8 AM
(c) Wednesday 4 AM
(d) Wednesday 8 AM
Answer: (b) Tuesday 8 AM
150. X, Y, Z, U are in ascending order, and U, Y, W are in descending order. Which of the following is neither ascending nor descending?
(a) X, Y, Z
(b) W, Y, Z
(c) X, U, W
(d) U, Y, W
Answer: (c) X, U, W
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39th BPSC (Pre.) Exam- 24.07.1994 .pdf
Practice Quiz
39th BPSC (Pre.) Exam- 24.07.1994 (Official Paper) Mock Test (English)