Table of Contents
70th BPSC Prelims Re Exam 04.01.2025 MCQ in English
Question: Which is the oldest civilization in the world?
(a) Indus Valley
(b) Chinese
(c) Egyptian
(d) Mesopotamian (Iraq)
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Mesopotamian Civilization is considered the oldest organized civilization in the world.
• It developed around 3500 BCE between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers (present-day Iraq).
• The word Mesopotamia means “land between two rivers.”
• The Sumerians developed one of the earliest writing systems called Cuneiform.
• Early city-states, organized administration, and Hammurabi’s Code of Laws emerged here.
• Chronologically, it is regarded as older than the Egyptian and Indus Valley civilizations.
Question: Who was the founder of the Mauryan Empire?
(a) Bindusara
(b) Brihadratha
(c) Ashoka
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
Answer: d
Solution:
• Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire around 321 BCE after defeating the Nanda dynasty.
• His teacher and advisor was Chanakya (Vishnugupta/Kautilya), author of the Arthashastra.
• Chandragupta defeated Seleucus Nicator, securing north-western India.
• Under his rule, India witnessed the first large and centralized empire.
• The Mauryan administration strengthened taxation, governance, and military organization.
Question: Which of the following was not a famous center of Buddhist education in ancient India?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Vallabhi
(c) Vikramashila
(d) Nalanda
Answer: a
Solution:
• Nalanda University was a world-famous Buddhist learning center attracting foreign students.
• Vikramashila University was established by King Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty.
• Vallabhi (in Gujarat) was an important center of Buddhist and Jain learning.
• These institutions offered higher education in philosophy, medicine, grammar, and mathematics.
• Nagpur was not known as a major ancient Buddhist university.
Question: In which script were Ashoka’s pillar inscriptions written?
(a) Brahmi
(b) Samari
(c) Pali
(d) Sanskrit
Answer: a
Solution:
• Emperor Ashoka’s inscriptions are major historical sources of his reign.
• His inscriptions include Rock Edicts, Pillar Edicts, and Cave Inscriptions.
• Most inscriptions were written in Prakrit language using Brahmi script.
• In north-western regions, some were written in Kharosthi script.
• Greek and Aramaic inscriptions were also found in frontier areas.
• The main pillar inscriptions were written in Brahmi script.
Question: Which of the following is not related to Chandragupta Maurya?
(a) Susima
(b) Sanchi
(c) Rudradaman’s Junagadh Inscription
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer: b
Solution:
• Vishnugupta (Chanakya) was the mentor and chief advisor of Chandragupta Maurya.
• Susima was related to the Mauryan dynasty (son of Bindusara).
• The Junagadh Inscription mentions the Sudarshana Lake, whose construction began during Chandragupta’s time.
• Sanchi, located in Madhya Pradesh, is mainly associated with Emperor Ashoka.
• Sanchi does not have a direct connection with Chandragupta Maurya’s reign.
Question: Which major city of the Indus Valley Civilization had trade relations with Western Asia?
(a) Ropar
(b) Lothal
(c) Kalibangan
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• Lothal was an important city of the Indus Valley Civilization located in present-day Gujarat.
• It developed around 2400 BCE.
• Lothal is famous for its well-planned dockyard, considered one of the earliest known in the world.
• The dock was connected to the sea through a canal, indicating maritime trade.
• Artifacts such as beads, seals, copper tools, and pottery suggest trade links.
• Evidence indicates trade relations with Mesopotamia, Persia, and Egypt.
• Mesopotamian records mention a place called “Meluhha,” believed to refer to the Indus region.
• Excavations were conducted between 1954–1958 under S. R. Rao.
• Lothal had advanced town planning with drainage systems, warehouses, and industrial areas.
Question: The sculptures at the Deogarh Temple near Jhansi and the Garhwa Temple near Prayagraj are important remains of which art?
(a) Rashtrakuta Art
(b) Gupta Art
(c) Mauryan Art
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Gupta period (4th–6th century CE) is regarded as the Golden Age of Indian art and culture.
• The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh) is an outstanding example of Gupta architecture.
• It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and contains panels depicting his ten incarnations.
• The temple represents the early Nagara style of temple architecture.
• Sculptures found at Garhwa (near Prayagraj) also reflect Gupta artistic excellence.
• Gupta sculptures are known for ideal beauty, balanced proportions, calm expressions, and spiritual depth.
• Inscriptions in Brahmi script and Sanskrit from these sites provide historical evidence of the period.
Question: The term ‘Zil-i-Ilahi’ (Shadow of God) was first used by whom?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Akbar
(c) Balban
(d) Iltutmish
Answer: c
Solution:
• Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266–1287 CE) strengthened the authority of the Sultan during the Delhi Sultanate.
• He promoted the concept similar to the Divine Right Theory.
• Balban declared himself ‘Zil-i-Ilahi’ (Shadow of God) to emphasize royal supremacy.
• He believed the Sultan was God’s representative on Earth (Niyabat-i-Khudai).
• He introduced court practices like Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing the feet) to enhance royal dignity.
• Thus, the concept of ‘Zil-i-Ilahi’ was central to Balban’s theory of kingship.
Question: Who wrote ‘Tarikh-i-Firozshahi’?
(a) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
(b) Yahya Sirhindi
(c) Minhaj Siraj
(d) Isami
Answer: a
Solution:
• Tarikh-i-Firozshahi is an important historical text of the Delhi Sultanate period.
• An earlier version was written by Ziauddin Barani in the 14th century.
• Later, Shams-i-Siraj Afif continued the work and detailed the reign of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
• The text describes administrative reforms, taxation, religious policies, and social conditions.
• It is considered an authentic source for studying the Sultanate period.
Question: In which Indian state is the Chitrakoot Temple located?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Odisha
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: d
Solution:
• Chitrakoot is an important religious and historical site mentioned in the Ramayana.
• It is believed that Lord Rama, Sita, and Lakshmana stayed here during exile.
• The main town and administrative district of Chitrakoot are located in Uttar Pradesh.
• Some parts of the region extend into Madhya Pradesh.
• Important religious sites include Kamadgiri Hill, Ramghat, and Bharat Milap Temple.
• It is regarded as a major pilgrimage center of Uttar Pradesh.
Question: During the Delhi Sultanate, the term ‘Muqaddam’ was used for whom?
(a) Village headman
(b) Village accountant
(c) Revenue officer
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• During the Delhi Sultanate, village administration was well organized.
• The Muqaddam was the village headman or chief.
• He was sometimes also called Khut or Chaudhary.
• He acted as a link between villagers and the Sultanate administration.
• He assisted in collecting land revenue (lagaan).
• The village accountant’s role was usually performed by the Patwari, not the Muqaddam.
Question: When did the Santhal Hul (Rebellion) take place?
(a) 1857–58
(b) 1858–59
(c) 1855–56
(d) 1854
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Santhal Rebellion (Santhal Hul) took place in 1855–56.
• It was led by the Santhal tribe in present-day Jharkhand, Bihar, and West Bengal.
• The main cause was economic exploitation by British officials, zamindars, and moneylenders.
• The movement was led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, along with Chand, Bhairav, Phulo, and Jhano.
• It started as a protest against economic injustice but soon became an anti-British uprising.
• After the rebellion, the British created the Santhal Pargana as a separate administrative unit.
Question: Who led the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was the first Satyagraha led by Mahatma Gandhi in India.
• It was organized in Champaran (Bihar) against the exploitation of indigo farmers.
• British planters forced farmers to grow indigo under the Tinkathia system (3/20th of land).
• Indigo cultivation caused heavy economic losses to peasants.
• Local leader Raj Kumar Shukla invited Gandhi to Champaran.
• Gandhi investigated the grievances and launched a non-violent movement.
• The British government appointed an inquiry committee and provided relief to farmers.
• The movement marked the beginning of Gandhi’s mass struggle in India.
Question: Where did the Birsa Munda Rebellion take place?
(a) Champaran
(b) Ballia
(c) Ranchi
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Birsa Munda Rebellion took place in the Chotanagpur region, mainly centered around present-day Ranchi (Jharkhand).
• The movement occurred between 1895 and 1900 and was popularly known as “Ulgulan” (The Great Revolt).
• Birsa Munda aimed to free tribal people from exploitation by British authorities, zamindars, and moneylenders.
• He also initiated religious and social reforms within tribal society.
• He promoted belief in one supreme God (Sing Bonga) instead of multiple Bonga spirits.
• The revolt was primarily against land alienation and forced labor practices.
• As a result, the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 was later enacted to protect tribal land rights.
Question: When Subhas Chandra Bose resigned in 1939, who became the President of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• Subhas Chandra Bose was elected Congress President at the Haripura Session (1938).
• In 1939, at the Tripuri Session, he was re-elected after defeating Pattabhi Sitaramayya.
• However, differences with Mahatma Gandhi and senior leaders led to internal conflict.
• Due to these disagreements, Bose resigned from the presidency in 1939.
• After his resignation, Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the President of the Indian National Congress.
Question: Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Hasrat Mohani
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Maulana Azad
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.
• Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of the Congress.
• He presided over the third session of the Congress in Madras (27–30 December 1887).
• He was a distinguished lawyer and social reformer.
• Tyabji strongly advocated national unity and communal harmony.
• His presidency strengthened the inclusive and secular character of the Congress.
Question: Match the leaders in List-I with their regions in List-II and choose the correct answer:
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Kunwar Singh | 1. Faizabad |
| B. Hazrat Mahal | 2. Bareilly |
| C. Khan Bahadur | 3. Jagdishpur |
| D. Maulvi Ahmadullah | 4. Lucknow |
(a) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(b) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(c) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Kunwar Singh was a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857, and his main area of activity was Jagdishpur (Bihar).
• Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt against the British in Awadh and made Lucknow the center of resistance.
• Khan Bahadur Khan led the uprising in Bareilly in 1857.
• Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah led the revolt in the Faizabad region and organized the masses.
Question: Who first described the Revolt of 1857 as the ‘First War of Indian Independence’?
(a) V. D. Savarkar
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) R. C. Majumdar
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• V. D. Savarkar described the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of Indian Independence.
• In 1909, he published his famous book “The Indian War of Independence, 1857.”
• He argued that the revolt was not merely a sepoy mutiny but a planned national movement.
• Savarkar presented the uprisings in different regions as a coordinated effort.
• Therefore, he is credited with popularizing the term “First War of Indian Independence.”
Question: The Fort William College in Calcutta was established —
(a) In 1802 for historical research in Indian languages
(b) In 1802 to understand Indian culture and traditions
(c) In 1800 only to train Indian civil servants
(d) In 1800 to train civil servants in Indian languages
Answer: d
Solution:
• Fort William College was established on 10 July 1800 by Governor-General Lord Wellesley.
• It was set up in Calcutta (Kolkata).
• The main objective was to train East India Company civil servants in Indian languages.
• Knowledge of local languages such as Persian, Hindi, and Hindustani (Urdu) was necessary for administration.
• The college also encouraged translation and literary development in Indian languages.
• It functioned primarily as an administrative training institution.
Question: Which Viceroy initiated decentralization of the colonial financial structure in India?
(a) Mayo
(b) Curzon
(c) Ripon
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• Lord Mayo (1869–1872) took important steps toward financial decentralization.
• On 14 December 1870, he issued the Mayo Resolution.
• This resolution divided financial responsibilities between the central and provincial governments.
• Provinces were given responsibility for areas like education, health, and prisons.
• Limited financial autonomy was granted to provincial administrations.
• This marked the beginning of fiscal decentralization in British India.
Question: Who is the author of the famous book ‘Gulamgiri’?
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) Ramaswami Naicker Periyar
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• Jyotiba Phule wrote Gulamgiri in 1873.
• The book criticized the Brahmanical social order and caste discrimination.
• In the same year, Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj.
• The organization aimed to uplift backward classes and marginalized communities.
• Gulamgiri strongly protested against social injustice and oppression.
Question: Under the Local Press Act —
(a) If objectionable material was published, the newspaper property could be confiscated
(b) If non-objectionable material was published, the printing press could be confiscated
(c) If objectionable material was published, the printing press could be confiscated
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Local Press Act, 1908 was enacted by the British government to curb press freedom.
• It targeted newspapers supporting nationalist activities.
• If any content was considered ‘objectionable’, the government could confiscate the printing press or property.
• The Act aimed to suppress criticism of British rule.
• It was regarded as a repressive law against Indian journalism.
• Due to nationalist pressure, it was later repealed in 1919.
Question: In which year was the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) formed?
(a) 1920
(b) 1919
(c) 1918
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded on 31 October 1920 in Bombay (Mumbai).
• Leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai, N. M. Joshi, Joseph Baptista, and Diwan Chaman Lal played key roles.
• Lala Lajpat Rai became its first President.
• The formation followed a rise in labor movements between 1918–1920.
• AITUC aimed to improve wages, working hours, and working conditions of laborers.
• It later became associated with the International Labour Organization (ILO).
• During the freedom struggle, it mobilized workers against British rule.
Question: When did Macaulay issue his famous Minute on Indian Education?
(a) 12 February, 1835
(b) 12 February, 1836
(c) 02 February, 1835
(d) 01 February, 1835
Answer: c
Solution:
• Thomas Babington Macaulay presented his famous Minute on Indian Education on 2 February 1835.
• At that time, the Governor-General of India was Lord William Bentinck.
• The Minute aimed to settle the debate between Oriental education (Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian) and Western education (English).
• Macaulay strongly supported the introduction of English as the medium of higher education.
• He argued that European literature and science were superior to traditional Indian learning.
• He famously stated that “a single shelf of a good European library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia.”
• On 7 March 1835, Lord Bentinck accepted Macaulay’s recommendations.
• As a result, English became the medium of higher education in India.
• This led to the rise of an English-educated middle class, which later played a crucial role in the Indian National Movement.
Question: Which newspaper wrote that the Indian National Congress was “…the nucleus of the future Parliament of our country…”?
(a) The Indian Mirror
(b) The New York Times
(c) The Times of India
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• This remark was published in January 1886 by The Indian Mirror.
• The newspaper was founded in 1861 by Keshab Chandra Sen in Calcutta.
• It was published in English and was ideologically linked to the Brahmo Samaj.
• The paper supported social reform, political awareness, and national consciousness.
• After the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885, it recognized Congress as a future representative body of India.
• Thus, The Indian Mirror was among the earliest platforms to foresee the political importance of the Congress.
Question: Who threw harmless bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly?
(a) Jatin Das
(b) Batukeshwar Dutt
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• On 8 April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw harmless bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi.
• This incident is known as the Assembly Bomb Case.
• Their objective was not to kill anyone but to protest against repressive British laws.
• They opposed the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill.
• The bombs were deliberately thrown in empty spaces to avoid casualties.
• They shouted slogans like “Inquilab Zindabad” and “Down with Imperialism.”
• Instead of escaping, they courted arrest to use the trial as a platform to spread revolutionary ideas.
• Bhagat Singh was later executed on 23 March 1931 in the Lahore Conspiracy Case along with Rajguru and Sukhdev.
• The event inspired revolutionary nationalism among Indian youth.
Question: Who presided over the 1922 Gaya session of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(c) Chittaranjan Das
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• The 1922 session of the Indian National Congress was held at Gaya (Bihar).
• Deshbandhu Chittaranjan Das was elected President of this session.
• The session took place after the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement following the Chauri Chaura incident.
• A major debate arose within Congress about entering the legislative councils.
• Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru supported council entry (known as the Pro-Changers).
• Leaders like C. Rajagopalachari, Sardar Patel, and Dr. Rajendra Prasad opposed it (known as the No-Changers).
• The proposal for council entry was rejected at Gaya.
• Consequently, Chittaranjan Das resigned from the presidency.
• In 1923, he founded the Swaraj Party to oppose British policies from within the councils.
Question: Match the social reform organizations in List-I with their founders in List-II and choose the correct answer.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Brahmo Samaj | 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy |
| B. Ramakrishna Mission | 2. Swami Vivekananda |
| C. Servants of India Society | 4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale |
| D. Widow Remarriage Society | 1. Vishnu Shastri Pandit |
(a) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(b) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(c) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Brahmo Samaj was founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Its objective was to oppose social evils such as Sati and polygamy and to promote monotheism.
• The Ramakrishna Mission was founded in 1897 by Swami Vivekananda. Its aim was service, education, and spiritual upliftment.
• The Servants of India Society was founded in 1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale. Its objective was to train workers dedicated to national service.
• The Widow Remarriage Society was established in the 19th century to promote widow remarriage and was associated with Vishnu Shastri Pandit.
Question: Match the authors in List-I with the books related to 1857 in List-II and choose the correct answer.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. V. D. Savarkar | 1. The First War of Independence |
| B. S. N. Sen | 4. Eighteen Fifty-Seven |
| C. Eric Stokes | 2. The Peasant and the Raj |
| D. S. B. Chaudhuri | 3. Civil Rebellion and the Indian Mutinies |
(a) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(b) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(c) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• V. D. Savarkar, in The First War of Independence (1857), presented the Revolt of 1857 as a national war of independence.
• S. N. Sen wrote Eighteen Fifty-Seven, which provides a detailed historical analysis of the Revolt of 1857.
• Eric Stokes, in The Peasant and the Raj, examined the rural and peasant aspects of the Revolt of 1857.
• S. B. Chaudhuri, in Civil Rebellion and the Indian Mutinies, analyzed the civil and military dimensions of the Revolt of 1857.
Question: Which of the following states was NOT annexed under Lord Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Jaipur
(c) Sambalpur
(d) Satara
Answer: b
Solution:
• Lord Dalhousie (1848–1856) introduced the Doctrine of Lapse.
• According to this policy, states without a natural heir would be annexed by the British.
• Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1849), Jhansi (1854), and Nagpur (1854) were annexed under this doctrine.
• Awadh was annexed in 1856 on the ground of misgovernance, not under this doctrine.
• Jaipur was not annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Question: Which of the following is NOT associated with the Indian National Army (INA)?
(a) S. A. Dange
(b) Prem Singh Sehgal
(c) Shah Nawaz Khan
(d) General Mohan Singh
Answer: a
Solution:
• The Indian National Army (INA) was formed during World War II.
• Its early formation involved Rash Behari Bose, and later it was led by Subhas Chandra Bose (Netaji).
• General Mohan Singh was its first commander.
• Shah Nawaz Khan and Prem Kumar Sehgal were prominent INA officers.
• They were tried in the famous Red Fort Trials.
• S. A. Dange was a prominent communist leader and had no association with the INA.
Question: Match the pre-Congress organizations in List-I with their leaders in List-II and choose the correct answer.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Indian Association | 4. Surendranath Banerjee |
| B. Madras Mahajana Sabha | 2. M. Viraraghavachari |
| C. Bombay Presidency Association | 1. Dadabhai Naoroji |
| D. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha | 3. Justice Ranade |
(a) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(b) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(c) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Indian Association (1876, Calcutta) was founded by Surendranath Banerjee. Its objective was to promote political awareness and national unity.
• The Madras Mahajana Sabha (1884) was a major political organization in South India, associated with M. Viraraghavachari.
• The Bombay Presidency Association (1885) had the significant involvement of Dadabhai Naoroji.
• The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (1870/1872) was actively associated with Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade.
Question: Who published the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ in 1901?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) S. N. Banerjee
(c) R. C. Dutt
(d) Ferozeshah Mehta
Answer: a
Solution:
• The book was written and published in 1901 by Dadabhai Naoroji.
• It critically examined the economic policies of British rule in India.
• Naoroji propounded the famous Drain Theory.
• According to this theory, India’s wealth was continuously drained to Britain.
• The book provided an economic basis to the Indian National Movement.
• It exposed the exploitative nature of British colonial rule.
Question: Who introduced the Permanent Settlement system in Bengal?
(a) Holt Mackenzie
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis.
• It was implemented in Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, and the Banaras region.
• Under this system, zamindars were declared the permanent owners of land.
• A fixed amount of land revenue was permanently settled between the zamindars and the East India Company.
• Zamindars had to pay a predetermined revenue to the Company, irrespective of agricultural output.
• If they failed to pay revenue on time, their estates could be auctioned.
• The system aimed to create a loyal landed aristocracy.
• However, it led to increased exploitation of peasants and weakened the rural economy.
• It also resulted in absentee landlordism and agrarian distress.
Question: A British citizen residing in India cannot demand which of the following rights?
(a) Freedom of religion
(b) Protection of life and personal liberty
(c) Freedom of trade and profession
(d) Equality before law
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Indian Constitution grants some Fundamental Rights to all persons (citizens and foreigners), while some are reserved only for citizens.
• Article 14 (Equality before law) applies to all persons.
• Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) is available to everyone.
• Article 25 (Freedom of religion) is also granted to all persons.
• However, rights under Article 19 are available only to Indian citizens.
• Article 19(1)(g) provides the freedom of trade, profession, and business, which foreigners cannot claim as a Fundamental Right.
• Therefore, a British citizen living in India cannot demand this right under Article 19.
• Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are specifically reserved for citizens.
Question: The Tropic of Cancer passes through which state?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: a
Solution:
• The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23°30′ North latitude.
• In India, it passes through eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• Among the given options, only Mizoram lies on the Tropic of Cancer.
• It is one of the five major circles of latitude on Earth.
• The region south of it lies in the Tropical Zone, while the north lies in the Subtropical Zone.
• In India, it is prominently marked near Ujjain in Madhya Pradesh.
• Mizoram is the easternmost state through which it passes.
Question: Which is the oldest mountain range in South America?
(a) Pacaraima
(b) Dumak-Humak
(c) Andes
(d) Brazilian Highlands
Answer: a
Solution:
• The Pacaraima Mountains are considered among the oldest mountain ranges in South America.
• They are part of the Guiana Highlands.
• This range lies along the borders of Brazil, Guyana, Suriname, and French Guiana.
• Its geological age is estimated at around 1.8 billion years, making it extremely ancient.
• In contrast, the Andes Mountains are young fold mountains formed due to tectonic plate collision.
• The Brazilian Highlands are also ancient, but the Pacaraima range is older.
• The region is known for its unique table-top mountains called tepuis.
Question: Madhya Pradesh shares its longest boundary with which state?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: c
Solution:
• Madhya Pradesh is bordered by Uttar Pradesh (north), Chhattisgarh (east), Maharashtra (south), and Gujarat & Rajasthan (west).
• The longest boundary of Madhya Pradesh is with Uttar Pradesh, approximately 913 km.
• This boundary passes through several districts of both states.
• Important bordering districts include Gwalior, Bhind, Chhatarpur, Satna, and Rewa in MP.
• The long boundary influences cultural and economic exchanges between the two states.
• Hence, Uttar Pradesh shares the longest boundary with Madhya Pradesh.
Question: Which river pair of the Chotanagpur Plateau cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice?
(a) South Koel–Damodar
(b) Subarnarekha–Damodar
(c) North Koel–Damodar
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• No river of the Chotanagpur Plateau cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice.
• In India, only the Mahi River crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice.
• The Mahi River originates in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows through Rajasthan and Gujarat before draining into the Arabian Sea.
• Its total length is about 576 km.
• It is one of the important west-flowing rivers of India.
• Therefore, none of the given river pairs is correct.
Question: Which longitude separates Canada and Alaska?
(a) 131° W
(b) 161° W
(c) 151° W
(d) 141° W
Answer: d
Solution:
• The 141° West longitude (141° W) forms the international boundary between Canada and Alaska (USA).
• This boundary was determined under the Russo–British Treaty of 1825.
• At that time, Alaska was under Russian control, while Canada was under British rule.
• In 1867, the United States purchased Alaska from Russia, but the boundary line remained unchanged.
• This meridian is an important example of a politically defined longitudinal boundary in North America.
Question: What is Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?
(a) Number of children dying before age 3 per 1000 live births
(b) Number of children dying before age 4 per 1000 live births
(c) Number of children dying before age 2 per 1000 live births
(d) Number of children dying before age 1 per 1000 live births
Answer: d
Solution:
• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) refers to the number of infants who die before completing one year of age per 1000 live births in a given year.
• It is a key indicator of a country’s healthcare system, nutrition level, maternal care, and socio-economic conditions.
• A lower IMR reflects better public health and child welfare services.
• According to recent data, India’s IMR has steadily declined over the years.
• Government initiatives such as National Health Mission (NHM), Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Mission Indradhanush aim to reduce IMR.
• IMR is widely used in demographic and public health studies to assess development levels.
Question: Which country is known as the “Playground of Europe”?
(a) Germany
(b) Switzerland
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer: b
Solution:
• Switzerland is called the “Playground of Europe.”
• The presence of the Swiss Alps makes it ideal for winter sports.
• It is famous for skiing, mountaineering, trekking, and ice hockey.
• Its snow-covered peaks, lakes, and scenic valleys attract global tourists.
• Cities like Geneva, Zurich, and Interlaken are known for adventure sports.
• Its favorable climate and landscape make it a major European recreational hub.
Question: Which mountain range lies along the Mediterranean coast of Asia Minor?
(a) Kirthar
(b) Elburz
(c) Taurus
(d) Pontic
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Taurus Mountains are located in southern Asia Minor (modern Turkey).
• They run parallel to the Mediterranean Sea coast.
• The highest peak is Mount Demirkazık (approx. 3756 meters).
• This range separates the Anatolian Plateau from the coastal region.
• Major rivers like the Tigris and Euphrates originate in this region.
• The Taurus Mountains influence the Mediterranean climate of the area.
Question: Which state is known as the “Scotland of North-East India”?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: d
Solution:
• Meghalaya is known as the “Scotland of North-East India.”
• Its capital, Shillong, is especially famous for its scenic beauty.
• The lush green hills, waterfalls, and cool climate resemble Scotland.
• Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in Meghalaya are among the wettest places on Earth.
• The state is a major center for eco-tourism and natural attractions.
• Its rolling plateaus and misty environment give it this unique title.
Question: Which Indian state is called the “State of Minerals”?
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar
(d) Jharkhand
Answer: a
Solution:
• Odisha is known as the “State of Minerals.”
• It possesses about 40% of India’s total mineral resources.
• Major minerals include iron ore, coal, bauxite, manganese, chromite, limestone, and uranium.
• The Rourkela Steel Plant supports mineral-based industries in the state.
• Mining is a major contributor to Odisha’s economy.
• The state plays a crucial role in India’s industrial and steel production sector.
Question: The Grey Revolution is associated with —
(a) Fisheries
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Potato
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Grey Revolution is related to the increased production and use of fertilizers.
• It aimed to boost agricultural productivity through the use of chemical fertilizers.
• It supported the success of the Green Revolution by enhancing crop yields.
• Organizations like IFFCO (Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited) and National Fertilizers Limited (NFL) played important roles.
• Excessive fertilizer use has also caused environmental issues such as soil degradation and pollution.
• Other agricultural revolutions include:
– Blue Revolution → Fisheries
– Yellow Revolution → Oilseeds
– Round Revolution → Potato production
Question: What is the average height of the Snow Line in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) 6500 meters
(b) 7500 meters
(c) 5500 meters
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Snow Line refers to the altitude above which snow remains permanently throughout the year.
• In the Himalayan region, the snow line generally lies between 4800 to 6000 meters, depending on latitude, temperature, and precipitation.
• In the year 2000, Uttar Pradesh was reorganized and its mountainous region became the separate state of Uttarakhand.
• Present-day Uttar Pradesh is entirely a plain state and does not have any permanent snow-covered region.
• Therefore, none of the given altitude options apply to the current geographical boundaries of Uttar Pradesh.
• Hence, the correct answer is None of the above.
Question: Which of the following is NOT related to the continent of Australia?
(a) Lake Eyre
(b) Nullarbor Plain
(c) Selwyn Mountains
(d) Seluyin Valley
Answer: d
Solution:
• Lake Eyre (Kati Thanda–Lake Eyre) is the largest internal drainage basin in Australia.
• The Nullarbor Plain is a vast limestone plateau located between Western and South Australia.
• The Selwyn Mountains are associated with Australia.
• The Seluyin Valley, however, is not located in Australia; it is associated with regions of Asia (China–Myanmar–Thailand area).
• Therefore, Seluyin Valley is not related to the Australian continent.
Question: Select the odd pair from the following —
(a) Gobi : Mongolia
(b) Kalahari : America
(c) Thar : India
(d) Sahara : Africa
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Gobi Desert is located in Mongolia and China.
• The Thar Desert lies in India and Pakistan.
• The Sahara Desert is situated in North Africa and is the world’s largest hot desert.
• The Kalahari Desert is located in Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa, not in America.
• Hence, “Kalahari : America” is the incorrect (odd) pair.
Question: The origin place Amarkantak of the Son River is located in which range?
(a) Rajmahal Hills
(b) Mahadeo Hills
(c) Makalu Range
(d) Maikal Range
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Son River originates from Amarkantak.
• Amarkantak is situated in the Maikal Range, which is part of the Satpura Mountain system.
• The Son River is an important right-bank tributary of the Ganga River.
• The Vindhya Range lies to its north and the Satpura Range to its south.
• The river flows through a rift valley (faulted valley) in its upper course.
• It plays a significant role in the drainage system of central India.
Question: The Dalmatian Coast is —
(a) Intermontane
(b) Piedmont
(c) Karst-type Piedmont
(d) River depositional
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Dalmatian Coast is located along the Adriatic Sea in Croatia (Southern Europe).
• It is highly indented and characterized by numerous islands and narrow inlets.
• The coast is formed mainly due to Karst topography, where limestone rocks undergo solution processes.
• Submergence of parallel mountain ridges due to rising sea levels created long, narrow islands.
• This makes it a classic example of a Karst-type piedmont coast.
• It is one of the most famous examples of submergent coastal landforms in the world.
Question: Divi Island is located between the distributaries of which river?
(a) Mahananda
(b) Vamsadhara
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Answer: d
Solution:
• Divi Island (Diviseema) is located in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
• It lies in the delta region of the Krishna River, near its confluence with the Bay of Bengal.
• In delta regions, land formed between river distributaries often appears like an island.
• Diviseema is formed between the distributaries of the Krishna River.
• The region is agriculturally fertile due to rich alluvial deposits.
• It is also highly prone to cyclones; the 1977 Andhra cyclone caused massive devastation here.
• Thus, Divi Island is situated between the branches of the Krishna River.
Question: Which seed is used in the production of engineered (lab-grown) diamonds?
(a) Moissanite
(b) White Sapphire
(c) Graphite
(d) Cubic Zirconia
Answer: c
Solution:
• Engineered (Lab-grown) diamonds are artificially produced in laboratories.
• They are mainly manufactured using two methods:
- HPHT (High Pressure High Temperature)
- CVD (Chemical Vapour Deposition)
• In these processes, Graphite (a form of carbon) is used as the primary carbon source.
• Under extremely high pressure and temperature, the carbon structure of graphite transforms into a diamond crystal structure.
• Moissanite and Cubic Zirconia are diamond simulants, not raw materials for diamond production.
• Therefore, graphite is essential in the production of lab-grown diamonds.
Question: The Kashmir Valley is which type of valley?
(a) Rift
(b) Blind
(c) Erosional
(d) Tectonic
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Kashmir Valley lies between the Pir Panjal Range and the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas.
• It is a broad basin formed through multiple geological processes.
• The valley was once occupied by a large lake known as Satisar Lake in ancient times.
• Over time, fluvial erosion by the Jhelum River drained the lake waters.
• Glacial erosion also played a significant role in shaping the valley.
• Its average elevation is about 1600 meters above sea level.
• The valley is approximately 135 km long and 32 km wide.
• Hence, it is mainly considered an erosional valley.
Question: Renewable energy refers to —
- Electricity produced from solar energy
- Electricity produced from thermal power plants
- Electricity produced from coal
- Electricity produced from wind energy
(a) Only 1 and 4
(b) Only 1, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 1 and 3
Answer: a
Solution:
• Renewable energy is energy obtained from natural sources that are continuously replenished.
• Solar energy (1) and Wind energy (4) are renewable sources.
• Thermal power plants (2) and coal-based energy (3) depend on fossil fuels, which are exhaustible resources.
• Major renewable sources include solar, wind, hydropower, biomass, tidal, and geothermal energy.
• Advantages of renewable energy:
• Environment-friendly
• Low greenhouse gas emissions
• Long-term energy security
• Reduced dependence on imported fuels
• India has set a target of achieving 500 GW renewable energy capacity by 2030 under initiatives like the National Solar Mission.
Question: Which is the oil refinery with the highest capacity in India?
(a) Barauni
(b) Mathura
(c) Trombay
(d) Koyali
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Koyali Oil Refinery (Gujarat Refinery) is one of the major high-capacity public sector refineries in India.
• It is operated by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL).
• It is located at Koyali, Vadodara (Gujarat).
• It was established in 1965.
• Its refining capacity is approximately 18 Million Metric Tonnes Per Annum (MMTPA).
• It produces petrol, diesel, ATF (Jet Fuel), kerosene, LPG, lubricants, and petrochemical products.
• The refinery plays a significant role in meeting the industrial and transport fuel demand of western India.
• It uses modern and environmentally compliant refining technologies.
Question: Which of the following subjects require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures for constitutional amendment?
- Election of the President
- Representation of States in Parliament
- Amendment in any list of the Seventh Schedule
- Abolition of a State Legislative Council
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Solution:
• Article 368 of the Indian Constitution lays down the procedure for constitutional amendments.
• Certain amendments require not only a special majority in Parliament but also ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
• Subjects requiring state ratification include:
• Election of the President (Articles 54 & 55), as it involves both Parliament and States.
• Representation of States in Parliament, especially in the Rajya Sabha, which reflects the federal structure.
• Changes in the Seventh Schedule (Union, State, Concurrent Lists), as they affect the distribution of powers between Union and States.
• Abolition or creation of a State Legislative Council (Article 169) does not require ratification by all states; Parliament can act by simple majority based on the concerned state’s resolution.
• Therefore, the correct combination is 1, 2 and 3.
Question: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has —
(a) The right to vote only in case of equality of votes
(b) The right to vote like any other member
(c) Two votes — one ordinary and one casting vote
(d) No right to vote
Answer: a
Solution:
• According to Article 100(1) of the Constitution, the Speaker does not vote in the first instance.
• The Speaker exercises a Casting Vote only in case of a tie.
• The purpose of the casting vote is to resolve a deadlock in the House.
• This ensures neutrality of the Speaker during normal proceedings.
• Under Article 96, when a resolution for removal of the Speaker is under consideration, he/she does not preside and may vote in the first instance but not exercise a casting vote.
• Hence, in general proceedings, the Speaker votes only in case of equality of votes.
Question: Which of the following acts as part of the Electoral College for the President but does not participate in the impeachment process?
(a) State Legislative Councils
(b) State Legislative Assemblies
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: b
Solution:
• According to Article 54, the Electoral College for the President consists of:
• Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
• Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
• Members of State Legislative Councils do not participate in the Presidential election.
• Under Article 61, the impeachment process is conducted only by Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).
• State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the impeachment procedure.
• Therefore, State Legislative Assemblies take part in the election but not in impeachment.
Question: Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to the declaration of National Emergency?
(a) Article 360
(b) Article 365
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 352
Answer: d
Solution:
• Article 352 deals with the declaration of National Emergency.
• It can be proclaimed in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• The term “armed rebellion” replaced “internal disturbance” through the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978).
• Article 356 relates to President’s Rule in a state.
• Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency.
• Article 365 concerns failure of a state to comply with Union directions.
• Thus, Article 352 specifically provides for National Emergency.
Question: Who is the Chairperson of the GST Council?
(a) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(b) Union Minister of Corporate Affairs
(c) Chairman of the Finance Commission
(d) Union Finance Minister
Answer: d
Solution:
• The GST Council was constituted under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution.
• The Union Finance Minister acts as the Chairperson of the GST Council.
• The Council also includes the Union Minister of State for Finance and the Finance Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislature.
• It is the highest decision-making body regarding GST rates, tax structure, exemptions, and administrative reforms.
• Decisions are generally taken by a three-fourths majority of weighted votes.
• The GST Council is considered an example of Cooperative Federalism in India.
Question: The person who served as President of India and also as Ambassador to the USA, China, Turkey, and Thailand, and Vice-Chancellor of JNU was —
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(c) K. R. Narayanan
(d) R. Venkataraman
Answer: c
Solution:
• K. R. Narayanan was a distinguished diplomat, academic, and statesman.
• He served as India’s Ambassador to the United States, China, Turkey, and Thailand.
• He was also associated with Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) in an academic leadership role.
• He became the Vice President of India in 1992.
• In 1997, he was elected as the President of India.
• He was the first Dalit President of India, marking a significant milestone in Indian democracy.
Question: Which Constitutional Amendment fixed the maximum size of the Council of Ministers in a State?
(a) 91st Amendment
(b) 86th Amendment
(c) 81st Amendment
(d) None
Answer: a
Solution:
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 164(1A).
• It limited the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, to 15% of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly.
• The minimum number of ministers in a state cannot be less than 12.
• A similar provision was inserted for the Union Council of Ministers under Article 75(1A).
• The objective was to prevent political corruption and excessive distribution of ministerial posts.
Question: Which portfolio did Dr. Rajendra Prasad hold in the Interim Government of 1946?
(a) Defence
(b) Home
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Interim Government was formed on 2 September 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was assigned the Food and Agriculture Department.
• At that time, India was facing a serious food crisis after World War II.
• His role was crucial in addressing issues related to food supply and agricultural policy.
• This experience contributed to his later leadership as the first President of independent India.
Question: In which Schedule of the Indian Constitution are the provisions related to the Anti-Defection Law mentioned?
(a) Fifth
(b) Second
(c) Eighth
(d) Tenth
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
• It contains provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection.
• The law aims to prevent political instability and opportunistic party switching.
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 further strengthened these provisions.
• The Speaker or Chairman of the House decides cases related to disqualification under this Schedule.
Question: What type of governance structure is provided under the Panchayati Raj system?
(a) Three-tier structure of local self-government at rural, intermediate, and district levels
(b) Four-tier structure including state level
(c) Two-tier structure
(d) Single-tier structure
Answer: a
Solution:
• The Panchayati Raj system is provided under Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) of the Constitution.
• Article 243B provides for a three-tier structure in states.
• The three levels are:
- Gram Panchayat (Village Level)
- Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate Level)
- Zila Parishad (District Level)
• States with a population below 20 lakh may not constitute the intermediate level.
• The system was given constitutional status by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• It aims to strengthen grassroots democracy and local self-governance.
Question: Disputes between the Centre and the States fall under which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) Constitutional Jurisdiction
Answer: b
Solution:
• Article 131 of the Constitution defines the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Under this Article, disputes between:
• The Centre and one or more States, or
• Two or more States
can be directly brought before the Supreme Court.
• The dispute must involve a question of legal right.
• This jurisdiction is exclusive, meaning no other court can hear such cases.
• It plays a vital role in preserving the federal structure of India.
Question: What is the minimum age required to become a Member of Lok Sabha, Member of Rajya Sabha, and the President of India?
(a) 25, 30 and 35
(b) 25, 35 and 45
(c) 25, 30 and 30
(d) 25, 35 and 35
Answer: a
Solution:
• According to Article 84 of the Constitution —
• The minimum age to become a Lok Sabha member is 25 years.
• The minimum age to become a Rajya Sabha member is 30 years.
• According to Article 58(1)(b), the minimum age to become the President of India is 35 years.
• These age limits are fixed to ensure political maturity and adequate administrative understanding.
Question: Under which Article is the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) presented before Parliament?
(a) Article 113
(b) Article 114
(c) Article 112
(d) Article 111
Answer: c
Solution:
• Article 112 provides for the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement.
• It is presented by the President before Parliament for every financial year.
• It contains the estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India for the upcoming year.
• Article 113 relates to Demands for Grants.
• Article 114 relates to the Appropriation Bill.
• Article 111 deals with the President’s assent to Bills.
Question: Parliament can make laws to implement international treaties for any part or the whole of India —
(a) With consent of all states
(b) With consent of majority of states
(c) With consent of the concerned state
(d) Without consent of states
Answer: d
Solution:
• Article 253 grants special powers to Parliament.
• Parliament can make laws to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions.
• Such laws may apply to the whole of India or any part of it.
• Parliament can even legislate on matters in the State List for this purpose.
• In such cases, consent of the states is not required.
• This provision ensures that India can effectively fulfill its international obligations.
Question: The proportion of total deposits that a commercial bank must keep with the Reserve Bank of India is called —
(a) Statutory Reserve Ratio
(b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(c) Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) Deposit Ratio
Answer: c
Solution:
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the minimum percentage of a bank’s total deposits (NDTL) that must be kept with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in cash form.
• Banks cannot use this amount for lending or investment.
• CRR is an important tool of Monetary Policy.
• When RBI increases CRR → lending capacity of banks decreases → money supply reduces.
• When RBI decreases CRR → lending capacity increases → economic activity is stimulated.
• The rate is revised periodically by RBI.
Question: Which of the following is an instrument of Fiscal Policy?
(a) Tax
(b) Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Credit Ceiling
(d) Bank Rate
Answer: a
Solution:
• Fiscal Policy deals with government revenue and expenditure.
• It is managed by the Ministry of Finance.
• Major instruments include —
• Taxation
• Government Expenditure
• Borrowing
• Subsidies
• Taxes may be:
• Direct Taxes (Income Tax, Corporate Tax)
• Indirect Taxes (GST, Customs Duty)
• CRR, Credit Ceiling, and Bank Rate are instruments of Monetary Policy, which is controlled by RBI.
• Fiscal policy aims at economic growth, employment generation, reducing inequality, and controlling inflation.
Question: What is the primary function of the Finance Commission in India?
(a) Distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) Allocation of funds to ministries of the Union and State governments
(c) Advising the President on financial matters
(d) Preparing the annual budget
Answer: a
Solution:
• Under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the President constitutes the Finance Commission every five years (or earlier if required).
• The primary function of the Finance Commission is the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.
• It also recommends the principles governing the distribution of the States’ share among themselves.
• This ensures Fiscal Federalism, maintaining financial balance between the Centre and the States.
• The Commission submits its recommendations to the President, but it does not prepare the Union Budget.
• It also does not directly allocate funds to ministries.
Question: Which sector in India has benefited the most from globalization?
(a) Services
(b) All sectors equally
(c) Manufacturing
(d) Agriculture
Answer: a
Solution:
• Globalization refers to the increasing integration of economies through trade, investment, technology, and services.
• After the 1991 Economic Reforms, globalization accelerated in India.
• The Service Sector benefited the most, especially:
• Information Technology (IT)
• Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)
• Banking and Financial Services
• Telecommunications
• Tourism
• India became a global leader in software exports and IT-enabled services.
• The service sector contributes more than 50% to India’s GDP.
• Although manufacturing and agriculture also gained, the growth rate of the service sector was significantly higher.
Question: Choose the correct pair from the following options.
(a) Fourth Five-Year Plan — Focus on services
(b) Fifth Five-Year Plan — Focus on industry
(c) Third Five-Year Plan — Focus on globalization
(d) First Five-Year Plan — Focus on agriculture
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Five-Year Plans were introduced to guide India’s economic development.
• The correct matching is:
• First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) — Focus on Agriculture
• The main objective was to increase agricultural production and develop irrigation facilities.
• Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) focused on heavy industries, based on the Mahalanobis Model.
• Third Five-Year Plan (1961–66) aimed at self-reliance in agriculture and industry.
• Fourth Plan (1969–74) emphasized stability and self-reliance.
• Fifth Plan (1974–79) focused on poverty removal (Garibi Hatao) and self-reliance.
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct pair.
Question: Which of the following is a function of the Central Bank?
(a) Managing the Repo Rate
(b) Lending to commercial banks
(c) Providing banking services to the government
(d) All of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Central Bank of India.
• Its major functions include:
• Issuing currency (Currency Issue)
• Acting as the Banker, Agent, and Debt Manager of the Government
• Acting as the Banker’s Bank
• Conducting Monetary Policy (Repo Rate, CRR, SLR, Bank Rate, etc.)
• Managing Foreign Exchange Reserves
• RBI provides loans to commercial banks when required.
• It also manages the Repo Rate, which controls liquidity in the economy.
• Hence, all the given options are correct.
Question: NNP at Factor Cost is equal to —
(a) GNP at Factor Cost – Net Indirect Taxes
(b) GNP at Market Price
(c) Disposable Personal Income
(d) National Income
Answer: d
Solution:
• NNP (Net National Product) is obtained after subtracting Depreciation from GNP.
• When NNP is calculated at Factor Cost, it is called National Income.
• Therefore:
NNP at Factor Cost = National Income
• Conversion formula:
NNP at Market Price – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies = NNP at Factor Cost
• In India, National Income is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
• National Income is measured using three methods:
- Production Method
- Income Method
- Expenditure Method
• India’s financial year runs from 1 April to 31 March.
Question: The legally prescribed maximum size of land beyond which no farmer can hold land is called —
(a) Land Consolidation
(b) Land Ceiling
(c) Abolition of Intermediaries
(d) Tenancy Reforms
Answer: b
Solution:
• The term refers to Land Ceiling, not geographical boundary.
• Under the Land Ceiling Act, a legal limit was imposed on the maximum agricultural land an individual or family could own.
• It was an important part of Land Reforms in India.
• The objectives were:
• Distribution of surplus land to landless farmers
• Elimination of zamindari tendencies
• Promotion of social and economic equality
• Most states implemented land ceiling laws during the 1950s–1970s.
• Thus, the legally fixed maximum landholding limit is known as Land Ceiling.
Question: The full form of UPI is —
(a) Uninterrupted Payment Initiation
(b) Uniform Payment Inception
(c) Unified Payment Interface
(d) United Payment Initiation
Answer: c
Solution:
• UPI stands for Unified Payment Interface, a digital payment system in India.
• It was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• It was launched in 2016.
• Key features include:
• 24×7 instant fund transfer
• Mobile-based transactions
• Managing multiple bank accounts through a single app
• Facility of Virtual Payment Address (VPA)
• UPI has made digital transactions simple, fast, and widely accessible in India.
• India is now among the leading countries in real-time digital payments.
Question: Steam Methane Reforming (SMR) technology is used to produce —
(a) Brown Hydrogen
(b) Grey Hydrogen
(c) Green Hydrogen
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• Steam Methane Reforming (SMR) is an industrial method of hydrogen production.
• Methane (CH₄) reacts with steam (H₂O) at high temperature (700–1000°C) in the presence of a nickel catalyst.
• Main reaction:
CH₄ + H₂O → CO + 3H₂
• Followed by Water-Gas Shift Reaction:
CO + H₂O → CO₂ + H₂
• The hydrogen produced through this process is called Grey Hydrogen because carbon dioxide (CO₂) is released.
• If CO₂ is captured and stored, it is called Blue Hydrogen.
• Hydrogen produced through electrolysis using renewable energy is called Green Hydrogen.
Question: The sour taste in vinegar is due to —
(a) Tartaric acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) None of these
Answer: d
Solution:
• The sour taste of vinegar is mainly due to Acetic Acid.
• The chemical formula of acetic acid is CH₃COOH.
• Vinegar generally contains about 4–8% acetic acid in water.
• It is produced by the fermentation of ethanol by bacteria.
• Since acetic acid is not listed among the options, the correct answer is None of these.
Question: The standard electrode potentials of metals A, B, and C are +0.5 V, −3 V, and −1.2 V respectively. Their reducing power will be —
(a) A > C > B
(b) B > C > A
(c) C > B > A
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• Standard electrode potential indicates the tendency of a metal to gain or lose electrons.
• The more negative the value, the stronger the reducing agent.
• Given values:
• A = +0.5 V
• B = −3 V
• C = −1.2 V
• Since B has the most negative value, it is the strongest reducing agent.
• Next comes C, and then A.
• Therefore, the order of reducing power is: B > C > A.
Question: Buds are typically found —
(a) At the base of leaves and at the tips of branches
(b) At the tips of branches
(c) At the base of leaves
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• Buds are the initial points of new growth in plants.
• They are found at two main locations:
- Axillary buds — at the base of leaves.
- Terminal buds — at the tips of branches.
• Terminal buds help in increasing the length of the plant.
• Axillary buds develop into new branches or flowers.
• Flower buds may later develop into fruits.
• Therefore, buds are found at both locations.
Question: Ishihara Test is related to —
(a) Bone density
(b) IQ
(c) Color blindness
(d) Hemoglobin level
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Ishihara Test is a standard method to detect color vision deficiency (color blindness).
• It was developed by Japanese scientist Dr. Shinobu Ishihara.
• The test consists of plates with colored dots forming numbers or patterns.
• A person with normal vision can identify the number, while a color-blind person may not.
• It mainly detects red-green color defects (Protanopia and Deuteranopia).
• It is widely used in medical exams, armed forces selection, and driving license tests.
Question: The reactance of a capacitor is —
(a) Directly proportional to frequency
(b) Inversely proportional to the square root of frequency
(c) Inversely proportional to frequency
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• The reactance of a capacitor is called capacitive reactance (Xc).
• Formula:
Xc = 1 / (2πfC)
where f = frequency and C = capacitance.
• From the formula, Xc ∝ 1/f.
• This means as frequency increases, reactance decreases.
• Its unit is ohm (Ω).
Question: A nail is hammered into a tree trunk 1 meter above the ground. After two years, the nail will —
(a) Remain at the same place
(b) Move sideways
(c) Move upward
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• Increase in height of a tree occurs due to the apical meristem at the tips.
• Growth in length takes place only at the top of the stem and root.
• The middle portion of the trunk does not increase in height.
• It only undergoes secondary growth (increase in thickness) forming annual rings.
• Therefore, the nail will remain at the same height.
Question: The actual site of the dark reaction of photosynthesis is —
(a) Grana
(b) Main lamella
(c) Stroma
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Photosynthesis occurs in two stages:
- Light reaction — in the thylakoid membranes.
- Dark reaction (Calvin Cycle) — in the stroma of chloroplast.
• The dark reaction does not require light directly.
• It involves fixation and reduction of CO₂ to form glucose.
• These reactions are enzyme-controlled processes occurring in the stroma.
Question: The catalyst used in hydrogenation of vegetable oil to make vanaspati ghee is —
(a) Pd
(b) Fe
(c) Ni
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Vegetable oils contain unsaturated fatty acids.
• In hydrogenation, hydrogen gas is passed through the oil.
• Nickel (Ni) is used as a catalyst in this process.
• Hydrogen adds to double bonds, converting them into single bonds.
• This increases the melting point and converts liquid oil into solid vanaspati ghee.
Question: Which of the following is not an electrophile?
(a) Na
(b) BF₃
(c) H⁺
(d) All of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• An electrophile is a species that accepts an electron pair during a chemical reaction.
• BF₃ (Boron trifluoride) is an electron-deficient compound because boron has an incomplete octet. Therefore, it readily accepts an electron pair and behaves as a strong electrophile.
• H⁺ (Proton) has no electrons and has a strong tendency to accept an electron pair, so it is also an electrophile.
• Sodium (Na) is a metal that donates an electron to form Na⁺. Hence, it behaves as a reducing agent and not as an electrophile.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Na.
Question: The conductivity of a strong electrolyte —
(a) Decreases on dilution
(b) Does not change on dilution
(c) Slightly increases on dilution
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• A strong electrolyte completely dissociates into ions in aqueous solution.
• There are two types of conductivity:
- Specific Conductivity (κ) — depends on the number of ions per unit volume.
- Molar Conductivity (Λm) — depends on total ions produced per mole.
• On dilution, the number of ions per unit volume decreases, so specific conductivity decreases.
• However, molar conductivity increases because interionic attraction decreases and ions move more freely.
• Since the question refers generally to conductivity, the correct answer is that it decreases on dilution.
Question: To obtain an ideal solution by mixing liquids A and B —
(a) Entropy of mixing should be zero
(b) Free energy of mixing should be zero
(c) Enthalpy of mixing should be zero
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• An ideal solution is one that strictly obeys Raoult’s Law at all concentrations.
• For an ideal solution, the enthalpy change of mixing (ΔHₘᵢₓ) is zero.
• This means that no heat is absorbed or evolved during mixing.
• The intermolecular forces between A–A, B–B, and A–B molecules are nearly equal.
• Also, the volume change of mixing (ΔVₘᵢₓ) is zero.
• Such solutions are generally formed when the two liquids are chemically similar.
• Therefore, the correct condition is ΔHₘᵢₓ = 0.
Question: The liver stores —
(a) Vitamins A, B, C and D
(b) Only A and B
(c) A, B and C
(d) None of these
Answer: d
Solution:
• The liver is the largest gland of the human body and performs numerous metabolic functions.
• It mainly stores fat-soluble vitamins — A, D, E, and K.
• Vitamin B₁₂ is also stored in the liver for a long period.
• Water-soluble vitamins, such as Vitamin C and most B-complex vitamins, are not stored in large quantities.
• Since the correct combination (A, D, E, K, and B₁₂) is not given in the options, the correct answer is None of these.
Question: The Moon has no atmosphere because —
(a) It is close to Earth
(b) The escape velocity is less than the RMS velocity of gas molecules
(c) It revolves around Earth
(d) It receives light from the Sun
Answer: b
Solution:
• For a celestial body to retain an atmosphere, it must have sufficient gravitational force.
• If the Root Mean Square (RMS) velocity of gas molecules is equal to or greater than the escape velocity, the gases escape into space.
• The Moon’s escape velocity is about 2.38 km/s, which is very low compared to Earth.
• Due to its weak gravity, gas molecules cannot remain bound to its surface.
• As a result, gases escape into space, and the Moon has no permanent atmosphere.
• This is why there is an extreme temperature difference between lunar day and night.
Question: Quinine used for malaria is obtained from which part of the plant?
(a) Leaves
(b) Root
(c) Bark of stem
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Quinine is an important drug used in the treatment of malaria.
• It is obtained from the bark of the Cinchona tree.
• Cinchona trees are mainly found in South America and tropical regions.
• Quinine is particularly effective against Plasmodium falciparum.
• Excess consumption may cause quinism, with symptoms like headache, nausea, tinnitus, and blurred vision.
Question: Turmeric powder is obtained from which part of the plant?
(a) Dry base
(b) Dry root
(c) Seed
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• The botanical name of turmeric is Curcuma longa.
• Turmeric powder is obtained from the underground stem called rhizome.
• A rhizome is a modified stem, not a root.
• The rhizomes are boiled, dried, and then ground into powder.
• Since “rhizome” is not mentioned in the options, the correct answer is None of the above.
Question: In physical form, hydrogen is stored by —
(a) As hydride
(b) As water
(c) By compressing hydrogen gas
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Hydrogen is a very light and highly flammable gas.
• Physically, it is commonly stored as compressed hydrogen gas in high-pressure cylinders.
• It can also be stored as liquefied hydrogen at very low temperatures.
• Storage without chemical change is called physical storage.
• Therefore, the correct answer is compression of hydrogen gas.
Question: When the diameter of the objective lens of a telescope increases, its resolving power —
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Depends on focal length
(c) Increases
(d) Decreases
Answer: c
Solution:
• Resolving power is the ability of a telescope to distinguish between two closely spaced objects.
• The formula is: Resolving Power ∝ D/λ
where D = diameter of the objective lens and λ = wavelength of light.
• As the diameter increases, more light is collected.
• Greater light collection improves angular resolution.
• Therefore, increasing the diameter increases the resolving power of the telescope.
Question: Compared to burning in air at 100°C, burning by steam at 100°C is —
(a) Less dangerous due to higher latent heat of vaporization
(b) More dangerous due to higher latent heat of vaporization
(c) Less dangerous due to lower latent heat of vaporization
(d) More dangerous due to lower latent heat of vaporization
Answer: b
Solution:
• Both boiling water and steam at 100°C may have the same temperature.
• However, steam contains additional energy in the form of latent heat of vaporization.
• When steam comes in contact with the skin, it condenses into water.
• During condensation, it releases the latent heat stored in it.
• This released latent heat transfers extra thermal energy to the skin.
• As a result, steam causes more severe burns than boiling water at the same temperature.
• The latent heat of vaporization of water is very high, which makes steam burns more dangerous.
Question: Lightweight bulletproof helmets and shields are made using which fiber?
(a) Terylene
(b) Nylon
(c) Kevlar
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Kevlar is a very strong synthetic fiber.
• It has high tensile strength and is much stronger than steel on a weight basis.
• It is lightweight yet extremely durable.
• Kevlar is also heat-resistant and impact-resistant.
• In bulletproof jackets and helmets, Kevlar fibers absorb and distribute the energy of the bullet over a larger area.
• This reduces the impact force and prevents penetration.
• Due to these properties, Kevlar is widely used in defense and protective equipment.
Question: The unit for measuring magnetic field strength is —
(a) Cobalt
(b) Ampere
(c) Ohm
(d) Tesla
Answer: d
Solution:
• The SI unit of magnetic field (magnetic flux density) is Tesla (T).
• 1 Tesla = 1 Weber per square meter (Wb/m²).
• It measures the strength of the magnetic field.
• In the CGS system, the unit is Gauss.
• 1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss.
• Ampere is the unit of electric current.
• Ohm is the unit of electrical resistance.
• Cobalt is a metal, not a unit.
• Therefore, the correct unit of magnetic field is Tesla.
Question: Apart from spreading malaria, Anopheles mosquito is also a vector of —
(a) Dengue and Filariasis
(b) Dengue and Encephalitis
(c) Encephalitis and Filariasis
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
• Anopheles mosquito is the primary vector of Malaria, caused by the Plasmodium parasite.
• In certain regions, it can also play a role in spreading Encephalitis, a disease involving inflammation of the brain caused by viruses.
• It may also transmit Filariasis, caused by the parasitic worm Wuchereria bancrofti.
• Filariasis leads to swelling of body parts (commonly called elephantiasis).
• Anopheles mosquito can be identified by its resting position, where its body forms an angle with the surface.
• Dengue is mainly transmitted by the Aedes mosquito, not Anopheles.
• Hence, the correct combination is Encephalitis and Filariasis.
Question: The blood group of a person is determined by —
(a) Presence of hemoglobin
(b) Combination of WBC and RBC
(c) Size of RBC
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• Blood group is determined on the basis of genetic inheritance.
• It depends on genes received from parents.
• The main system for blood grouping is the ABO system.
• There are four blood groups — A, B, AB, and O.
• Blood group is decided by the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of Red Blood Cells (RBCs).
• If A antigen is present → Blood group A.
• If B antigen is present → Blood group B.
• If both A and B antigens are present → Blood group AB.
• If no antigen is present → Blood group O.
• Additionally, the Rh factor (Rh⁺ or Rh⁻) also plays an important role.
• Since none of the given options correctly describe antigen presence on RBCs, the correct answer is None of the above.
Question: One property of X-rays is that they can be deflected by —
(a) Both electric and magnetic fields
(b) Only electric field
(c) Only magnetic field
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• X-rays are a type of electromagnetic waves.
• They have very short wavelength and high energy.
• They do not contain any charged particles.
• An electric field affects only charged particles.
• A magnetic field affects only moving charged particles.
• Since X-rays are uncharged electromagnetic radiation, they cannot be deflected by electric or magnetic fields.
• X-rays were discovered in 1895 by Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen.
• They are widely used in medical imaging, industrial inspection, and security scanning.
• Therefore, they cannot be deflected by either electric or magnetic fields.
Question: The number of scientific instruments installed on the Aditya L-1 mission for systematic study of the Sun is —
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 5
Answer: c
Solution:
• Aditya L-1 is India’s first dedicated solar mission.
• It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The spacecraft is positioned near the L1 Lagrange Point, about 1.5 million km from Earth.
• The L1 point allows continuous and unobstructed observation of the Sun.
• The mission carries 7 scientific payloads (instruments).
• Out of these, 4 are remote sensing payloads to study the photosphere, chromosphere, and corona of the Sun.
• The remaining 3 are in-situ payloads to study solar wind, plasma, and energetic particles.
• The main objective is to understand solar activity, solar storms, and space weather.
• Therefore, the total number of instruments onboard is seven.
Question: Which of the following is responsible for the formation of a shadow?
(a) Polarization
(b) Rectilinear propagation of light
(c) Diffraction
(d) Interference
Answer: b
Solution:
• The formation of a shadow is due to the Rectilinear Propagation of Light.
• Rectilinear propagation means that light travels in a straight line.
• When an opaque object comes in the path of light, it blocks the light rays.
• As a result, a dark region is formed behind the object.
• This dark region is called a shadow.
• If light did not travel in straight lines, a clear shadow would not be formed.
• A shadow may consist of two parts — Umbra (complete shadow) and Penumbra (partial shadow).
• The size and shape of the shadow depend on the position of the light source and the object.
• Polarization, diffraction, and interference are other optical phenomena, but they are not responsible for shadow formation.
Question: Who is the current Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?
(a) G. Madhavan Nair
(b) U. R. Rao
(c) S. Somanath
(d) K. Sivan
Answer: c
Solution:
• Dr. S. Somanath has served as the Chairman of ISRO.
• He assumed office on 15 January 2022.
• Before becoming Chairman, he was the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC).
• Under his leadership, Chandrayaan-3 successfully landed near the Moon’s south pole.
• During his tenure, Aditya-L1, India’s first solar mission, was also launched.
• He contributed significantly to projects like Gaganyaan Mission, SSLV, and RLV-LEX.
• His tenure marked important achievements in India’s space exploration program.
Question: An electron of mass M kg and charge e coulomb moves from rest through a potential difference of V volts. Its final energy in joules will be —
(a) eV
(b) VM
(c) MeV
(d) M
Answer: a
Solution:
• When a charge q moves through a potential difference V, the energy gained is given by E = qV.
• For an electron, the charge e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ coulomb.
• The electron is initially at rest, so its initial kinetic energy is zero.
• As it moves through the potential difference, its electrical potential energy converts into kinetic energy.
• Therefore, the final energy gained is E = eV joules.
• The unit of energy is joule (J).
• The mass M does not directly affect the energy expression in this case.
Question: When an antigen enters the body through vaccination, antibodies are produced by —
(a) Both B and T cells
(b) Only B cells
(c) Only T cells
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• A vaccine introduces a weakened or inactivated antigen into the body.
• The immune system recognizes the antigen as foreign.
• B-lymphocytes (B-cells) get activated upon exposure to the antigen.
• These B-cells differentiate into plasma cells.
• Plasma cells produce large amounts of antibodies.
• Antibodies specifically bind to pathogens and help neutralize them.
• T-cells help regulate and support the immune response but do not directly produce antibodies.
• Memory cells are also formed, which provide long-term immunity.
Question: The name of India’s first 3D printed human-like robot is —
(a) Indro
(b) Robocop
(c) Mitra
(d) Manav
Answer: d
Solution:
• Manav is India’s first 3D printed humanoid robot.
• It was developed using advanced 3D printing technology.
• In 3D printing, objects are created layer by layer.
• The robot is about two feet tall and resembles a human.
• It is equipped with around 21 sensors.
• It has cameras in its eyes for visual recognition.
• It also contains microphones to detect sound.
• The robot is designed to perform tasks using Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• It represents progress in India’s robotics and advanced manufacturing technology.
Question: Which of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• Vitamins are classified based on solubility into two groups.
• Water-soluble vitamins include Vitamin B complex and Vitamin C.
• Fat-soluble vitamins include Vitamin A, D, E, and K.
• The options given (A, D, K) are all fat-soluble vitamins.
• Water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body for long periods.
• Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the liver and fatty tissues.
• Therefore, none of the given options is water-soluble.
Question: In which district of Bihar is the world-famous painting found?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Madhepura
(c) Darbhanga
(d) Samastipur
Answer: a
Solution:
• Madhubani district is located in the Mithila region of Bihar.
• It is famous for Madhubani Painting, also known as Mithila Painting.
• This is a traditional folk art form.
• Natural colors and pigments are commonly used in this art.
• Themes often include religious, mythological, and nature-based subjects.
• According to tradition, the art originated during the wedding of Lord Rama and Sita.
• It has gained national and international recognition.
• Artist Jagdamba Devi received the Padma Shri for promoting this art form.
• Madhubani painting is recognized as an important part of India’s cultural heritage.
Question: Which of the following Acts converted Bihar’s unicameral legislature into a bicameral legislature — Bihar Legislative Assembly and Bihar Legislative Council?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Government of India Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: a
Solution:
• The Government of India Act, 1919 is also known as the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms.
• This Act introduced the system of Dyarchy in the provinces.
• It also provided for the establishment of a Bicameral Legislature in certain provinces.
• Under this Act, Bihar and Orissa were organized as a separate province.
• The province was given two legislative bodies — the Legislative Assembly (Lower House) and the Legislative Council (Upper House).
• Before this Act, the legislative structure was unicameral.
• Thus, the Government of India Act, 1919 gave Bihar a bicameral legislative system.
Question: In 2019–20, which sector contributed 60.2 percent to Bihar’s GSDP?
(a) Service sector
(b) Manufacturing sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Agriculture sector
Answer: a
Solution:
• GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) represents the total economic output of a state.
• According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2020–21, the Service Sector had the highest contribution in 2019–20.
• The service sector is also known as the Tertiary Sector.
• It includes activities such as trade, transport, banking, education, health, tourism, and communication.
• In 2019–20, the service sector contributed 60.2% to Bihar’s GSDP.
• The Primary Sector (Agriculture and allied activities) contributed around 19.5%.
• The Secondary Sector (Industry and manufacturing) contributed around 20.3%.
• Therefore, the service sector had the largest share in Bihar’s economy during that year.
Question: In which district of Bihar is maize production highest?
(a) Muzaffarpur
(b) East Champaran
(c) Siwan
(d) Saran
Answer: a
Solution:
• Bihar is one of the leading agricultural states in India.
• Maize (Corn) is one of the major crops cultivated in the state.
• According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2023–24, among the given options, Muzaffarpur recorded the highest production.
• In 2022–23, Muzaffarpur produced approximately 156.36 thousand tonnes of maize.
• East Champaran, Siwan, and Saran recorded comparatively lower production figures.
• Although at the state level Araria district has the highest production, it is not among the given options.
• Hence, among the listed districts, Muzaffarpur is correct.
Question: Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”?
(a) Son
(b) Gandak
(c) Kosi
(d) Ganga
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Kosi River is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar.”
• It originates in the Himalayan region of Nepal.
• The river is notorious for its frequent change of course (river shifting).
• Due to its unstable flow, it causes severe floods in North Bihar.
• These floods result in large-scale loss of life, crops, and property.
• Historically, the river has shifted its course several times over the decades.
• Finally, it joins the Ganga River within Bihar.
• Because of repeated flood devastation, it is called the “Sorrow of Bihar.”
Question: In which district of Bihar is litchi production highest?
(a) Siwan
(b) Sonpur
(c) Muzaffarpur
(d) Chhapra
Answer: c
Solution:
• Bihar is one of the leading producers of litchi in India.
• According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2023–24, the highest production in 2022–23 was recorded in Muzaffarpur district.
• Muzaffarpur produced approximately 147.95 thousand tonnes of litchi.
• The district is famous for its high-quality “Shahi Litchi.”
• “Shahi Litchi” has received the GI (Geographical Indication) Tag.
• Favorable climatic conditions and fertile alluvial soil contribute to high production.
• Other districts like Siwan produce litchi, but in comparatively smaller quantities.
Question: In April 2020, the Bihar Education Department started which of the following programs through DD Bihar?
(a) Broadcasting e-content for Class V–VI students
(b) Broadcasting e-content for Class IX–X students
(c) Broadcasting Krishak-Chaupal program for farmers
(d) Broadcasting a cultural program to preserve Bihar’s old culture
Answer: b
Solution:
• In 2020, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, schools were closed across the state.
• To ensure continuity of education, the Bihar Education Department took several digital initiatives.
• One such initiative was broadcasting E-Content through DD Bihar.
• Separate time slots were allocated for different classes.
• Special educational content was telecast for Class IX and X students.
• The program continued in phases until 28 February 2021.
• The objective was to maintain uninterrupted learning through digital and television platforms.
Question: The average height of the Kosi plain above sea level is —
(a) 100 meters
(b) 30 meters
(c) 150 meters
(d) 300 meters
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Kosi Plain is located in the northern part of Bihar.
• It forms a part of the Lower Ganga Plain.
• The average elevation of this region is approximately 30 meters above sea level.
• The land is mostly flat and alluvial in nature.
• The general slope of the region is from north-west to south-east.
• Due to its low elevation, the area is highly flood-prone, especially during monsoon.
Question: When was Patna College established?
(a) 1865
(b) 1863
(c) 1861
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• Patna College was established in 1863.
• It is considered one of the oldest higher educational institutions in Bihar.
• Initially, it was set up in the Patna City area.
• Later, it was shifted to its present location on the banks of the Ganga.
• The institution has played a significant role in the educational and intellectual history of Bihar.
• Many eminent personalities have been alumni of this college.
Question: In which district of Bihar is Makhana production highest?
(a) Vaishali
(b) Muzaffarpur
(c) Patna
(d) Madhubani
Answer: d
Solution:
• Bihar is the leading producer of Makhana (Fox Nut) in India.
• Makhana is also known as Euryale ferox.
• Among the given options, the highest production is in Madhubani district.
• Other major producing districts include Darbhanga, Sitamarhi, Saharsa, and Katihar.
• Makhana is mainly cultivated in ponds and waterlogged areas.
• It is a highly nutritious food product and has strong export potential.
Question: In Bihar, 71 percent of India’s annual production of which crop is produced?
(a) Pineapple
(b) Orange
(c) Litchi
(d) Mango
Answer: c
Solution:
• Bihar is a leading producer of Litchi in India.
• Approximately 71% of India’s annual litchi production comes from Bihar.
• Major producing districts include Muzaffarpur, Vaishali, Darbhanga, Samastipur, and Sitamarhi.
• The famous “Shahi Litchi” has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
• Favorable climatic conditions and fertile soil contribute to high production.
Question: When was Bihar state formally established?
(a) 1915
(b) 1911
(c) 1906
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Solution:
• On 22 March 1912, Bihar was separated from the Bengal Presidency.
• The new administrative arrangement came into effect on 1 April 1912.
• Initially, Bihar and Orissa were formed as a combined province.
• On 1 April 1936, Bihar and Orissa became separate provinces.
• 22 March is celebrated every year as Bihar Diwas.
• Since 1912 is not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.
Question: In which district of Bihar is wheat production highest?
(a) Jehanabad
(b) Bhojpur
(c) Rohtas
(d) Patna
Answer: c
Solution:
• According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2023–24, in 2022–23 the highest wheat production was recorded in Rohtas district.
• Rohtas produced approximately 675.88 thousand tonnes of wheat.
• Bhojpur, Patna, and Jehanabad recorded comparatively lower production.
• Rohtas has fertile soil and good irrigation facilities, which support high productivity.
• Wheat is one of the major Rabi crops of Bihar.
Question: Which of the following Sufi orders was established in Bihar?
(a) Qadriya
(b) Firdousiya
(c) Qalandar
(d) Kuwariya
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Firdousiya Sufi order was established in Bihar.
• It is mainly associated with Sheikh Sharafuddin Ahmad Yahya Maneri.
• He was honored with the title “Makhdoom-ul-Mulk.”
• His main center was at Maner Sharif, near Patna.
• The order emphasized spiritual devotion, love, tolerance, and service to humanity.
• It played a significant role in the spread of Sufism in Bihar.
• Even today, the shrines at Maner Sharif and Bihar Sharif are important religious centers.
Question: Under the Government of India Act, 1935, who was the first elected Chairman of the Bihar Legislative Council?
(a) Rai Bahadur Satish Chandra
(b) Rajiv Ranjan Sinha
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) More than one of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the system of Provincial Autonomy.
• It provided for the establishment of bicameral legislatures in several provinces.
• In Bihar, the Legislative Council functioned as the Upper House.
• The Council elected a Chairman to preside over its proceedings.
• Under this arrangement, Rajiv Ranjan Prasad Sinha became the first elected Chairman of the Bihar Legislative Council.
• He played an important role in organizing and regulating the early functioning of the House.
• The Chairman is the highest presiding authority of the Legislative Council.
Question: In 2023, which Indian company became the first to cross 200 billion US dollars in market capitalization?
(a) Infosys
(b) HDFC Bank
(c) TCS
(d) Reliance Industries
Answer: d
Solution:
• Market Capitalization refers to the total market value of a company’s outstanding shares.
• On 10 September 2023, Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) crossed the 200 billion US dollar mark.
• It became the first Indian company to achieve this milestone.
• During intraday trading, its valuation touched nearly 210 billion US dollars.
• Reliance operates in sectors such as energy, telecommunications, retail, and petrochemicals.
• After this achievement, it was included among the top 40 most valuable companies globally.
Question: Which country hosted the 2022 Winter Olympics?
(a) China
(b) South Korea
(c) Canada
(d) Japan
Answer: a
Solution:
• The 2022 Winter Olympics were held from 4 to 20 February 2022.
• The host city was Beijing, China.
• It was the 24th edition of the Winter Olympic Games.
• Beijing became the first city in the world to host both Summer (2008) and Winter Olympics.
• Events were organized in Beijing and its surrounding regions.
• Norway topped the medal tally in the 2022 Winter Olympics.
Question: Who was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
(a) C. N. R. Rao
(b) M. S. Swaminathan
(c) Chandrashekhar
(d) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer: b
Solution:
• The Bharat Ratna is India’s highest civilian award.
• In 2024, the Government of India announced the award to five distinguished personalities.
• Dr. M. S. Swaminathan was awarded the Bharat Ratna posthumously.
• He is regarded as the Father of the Green Revolution in India.
• His work significantly increased agricultural productivity and food security.
• His contributions helped India achieve self-sufficiency in food grain production.
Question: Which country hosted the 2023 World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Switzerland
Answer: d
Solution:
• The World Economic Forum (WEF) holds its annual meeting every year.
• The 2023 meeting was held from 16 to 20 January 2023.
• It took place in Davos, Switzerland.
• The theme of the meeting was “Cooperation in a Fragmented World.”
• Political leaders, business executives, and social thinkers from across the globe participated.
• The WEF serves as a major platform for discussing global economic policies and international cooperation.
Question: Which country hosted the COP28 Climate Summit in 2023?
(a) Italy
(b) Brazil
(c) United Kingdom
(d) United Arab Emirates
Answer: d
Solution:
• COP28 was the 28th session of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• It was held from 30 November to 12 December 2023.
• The host country was the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• The summit took place in Dubai.
• The main objective of COP meetings is to strengthen global action against climate change.
• The first COP meeting was held in Berlin, Germany, in 1995.
Question: Which of the following countries is not a member of the G7?
(a) Italy
(b) United States
(c) France
(d) Russia
Answer: d
Solution:
• The G7 (Group of Seven) is a group of seven major advanced economies.
• It was formed in 1975 as G6, and became G7 in 1976 after Canada joined.
• Current members are — United States, Canada, United Kingdom, France, Germany, Italy, and Japan.
• The G7 discusses issues related to the global economy, trade, climate change, security, and public health.
• The group does not have a permanent headquarters, and its presidency rotates annually.
• In 1998, Russia joined, forming the G8.
• In 2014, after the Crimea crisis, Russia was suspended, and the group returned to G7.
Question: Which Indian state secured the top position in NITI Aayog’s SDG India Index 2023?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Answer: d
Solution:
• The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog.
• It measures the progress of states toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• In 2023–24, India’s overall national score was 71.
• Kerala and Uttarakhand both scored 79, sharing the top position.
• Kerala has consistently performed well in education, healthcare, and gender equality indicators.
• Bihar recorded the lowest overall score among the states.
Question: Which country will host the 20th Asian Games in 2026?
(a) China
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
(d) India
Answer: c
Solution:
• The 20th Asian Games (2026) will be hosted by Japan.
• The event will be jointly organized in Aichi Prefecture and Nagoya City.
• This will be the third time the Asian Games are hosted by Japan.
• Previously, Japan hosted the Games in Tokyo (1958) and Hiroshima (1994).
• The Asian Games are organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
Question: Which Indian city was declared India’s first “City of Literature” by UNESCO?
(a) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kozhikode, Kerala
(c) Kolkata, West Bengal
(d) Nashik, Maharashtra
Answer: b
Solution:
• In June 2024, UNESCO declared Kozhikode (Kerala) as a “City of Literature.”
• The recognition was given under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
• UCCN was established in 2004.
• Its aim is to promote sustainable urban development through creativity and culture.
• Kozhikode is known for its rich literary heritage and publishing culture.
• It became the first Indian city to receive this recognition in the literature category.
Question: According to the 2011 Census, which Indian state has the highest literacy rate?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Goa
(c) Mizoram
(d) Kerala
Answer: d
Solution:
• The last official Census of India was conducted in 2011.
• The national average literacy rate in 2011 was 74.04%.
• Among all states, Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate.
• Kerala’s overall literacy rate was 94.00%.
• Male literacy was approximately 96.11%, while female literacy was about 92.07%.
• The high literacy level is due to strong educational infrastructure, social awareness, and focus on female education.
• Kerala has consistently ranked high in human development indicators.
Question: Who is the Prime Minister of Italy in 2024?
(a) Emma Bonino
(b) Rosy Bindi
(c) Laura Boldrini
(d) Giorgia Meloni
Answer: d
Solution:
• In 2024, Giorgia Meloni is serving as the Prime Minister of Italy.
• She took office on 22 October 2022.
• She became Italy’s first female Prime Minister.
• She is the leader of the political party “Brothers of Italy.”
• Her coalition government is associated with a right-wing political ideology.
• Under her leadership, Italy has remained active in the European Union and global diplomatic affairs.
Question: Which field sport is the most popular in the world?
(a) Hockey
(b) Volleyball
(c) Soccer (Football)
(d) Cricket
Answer: c
Solution:
• Football (Soccer) is considered the most popular sport in the world.
• It is played in more than 200 countries across all continents.
• The sport is governed globally by FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association).
• The FIFA World Cup is the most widely viewed sporting event worldwide.
• The rules of football are relatively simple, and it requires minimal equipment, increasing accessibility.
• It has millions of fans in Europe, South America, Africa, and Asia.
• Major leagues such as the English Premier League, La Liga, and UEFA Champions League further enhance its global popularity.
Question: Which sport was not included in the 33rd Olympic Games?
(a) Triathlon
(b) Modern Pentathlon
(c) Fencing
(d) Cricket
Answer: d
Solution:
• The 33rd Olympic Games were held in Paris, France, in 2024.
• A total of 32 sports were included in the event.
• Triathlon, Modern Pentathlon, and Fencing are traditional Olympic sports.
• Cricket was not included in the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• The list of Olympic sports is determined by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• However, cricket has been approved for inclusion in the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.
Question: Who was re-elected as the President of France in 2022?
(a) Jean-Luc Mélenchon
(b) Éric Zemmour
(c) Marine Le Pen
(d) Emmanuel Macron
Answer: d
Solution:
• The French Presidential Election was held in April 2022.
• In the first round, no candidate secured an absolute majority.
• A runoff election was conducted between the top two candidates.
• Emmanuel Macron defeated Marine Le Pen in the final round.
• He was re-elected for a second consecutive term as President of France.
• Macron is associated with the political party La République En Marche (LREM).
Question: In which city was the G20 Summit held in India in 2023?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi
Answer: d
Solution:
• The G20 Summit 2023 was held under India’s presidency.
• It took place on 9–10 September 2023 in New Delhi.
• The venue was Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan.
• The theme of the summit was “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” (One Earth, One Family, One Future).
• India held the G20 presidency from 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023.
• During this summit, the African Union was admitted as a permanent member.
• The New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration was adopted unanimously.
Question: Who received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2023?
(a) Abiy Ahmed
(b) Nadia Murad
(c) Narges Mohammadi
(d) Maria Ressa
Answer: c
Solution:
• The Nobel Peace Prize 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi.
• She is an Iranian human rights activist.
• She was honored for her struggle against the oppression of women in Iran.
• She has actively campaigned for human rights and freedom.
• The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded by the Norwegian Nobel Committee.
• The award recognizes efforts toward peace, justice, and human rights globally.
Question: At what time between 2 and 3 o’clock will the hands of a clock coincide?
(a) 2 hours minutes
(b) 2 hours 1minutes
(c) 2 hours minutes
(d) 2 hours minutes
Answer: b
Solution:
• When the two hands of a clock coincide, the angle between them is 0°.
• The hour hand moves 30° in one hour and 0.5° in one minute.
• The minute hand moves 6° in one minute.
• At exactly 2:00, the hour hand is at 2 × 30° = 60° from 12.
• Let the hands coincide after t minutes past 2.
• Then the angle covered by the minute hand = 6t°.
• The angle covered by the hour hand = 60 + 0.5t°.
• For coincidence: 6t = 60 + 0.5t.
• Therefore, 5.5t = 60.
• So, t = 60 / 5.5 = 120 / 11 minutes = 10 10/11 minutes.
• Hence, the hands coincide at 2 hours 10 10/11 minutes.
Question: If a triangle represents men, a rectangle represents businessmen, and a circle represents millionaires, which number represents those men who are both businessmen and millionaires?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 10
(d) 3
Answer: c
Solution:
• This question is based on a Venn Diagram.
• Triangle = Men, Rectangle = Businessmen, Circle = Millionaires.
• We are required to find those individuals who belong to all three categories simultaneously.
• That means the value of Men ∩ Businessmen ∩ Millionaires.
• In the given diagram, the common overlapping region of all three figures is marked as 10.
• Therefore, 10 represents men who are both businessmen and millionaires.
Question: How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 8
Answer: a
Solution:
• Number of small (single-unit) triangles = 5.
• Number of two-unit combined triangles = 4.
• Number of three-unit combined triangles = 2.
• Number of one large complete triangle = 1.
• Total number of triangles = 5 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 12.
• Therefore, the total number of triangles in the figure is 12.
Question: If 1 January 2008 was a Tuesday, what day of the week was 1 January 2009?
(a) Thursday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Monday
Answer: a
Solution:
• The year 2008 was a Leap Year.
• A leap year contains 366 days.
• 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 extra days.
• Therefore, the first day of the next year shifts by 2 days forward.
• 1 January 2008 was Tuesday.
• Moving two days ahead → Wednesday, then Thursday.
• Hence, 1 January 2009 was Thursday.
Question: What will come in place of ? in the following series?
117, 98, 80, 64, ?, 42
(a) 48
(b) 46
(c) 51
(d) 55
Answer: c
Solution:
• Observe the pattern of subtraction in the series.
• 117 → 98 (−19)
• 98 → 80 (−18)
• 80 → 64 (−16)
• 64 → ? (−13)
• ? → 42 (−9)
• The differences are gradually decreasing.
• From 64, subtract 13: 64 − 13 = 51.
• Now check: 51 − 9 = 42, which matches the last term.
• Therefore, the missing number is 51.
Question: There are 15 chairs in a row. P is sitting in the middle, and Q is at the 12th position from the left. How many chairs are between P and Q?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer: c
Solution:
• Total chairs = 15.
• Since 15 is an odd number, the middle position = (15 + 1) / 2 = 8th position.
• Therefore, P is sitting at the 8th position.
• Q is at the 12th position from the left.
• The difference in positions = 12 − 8 = 4.
• But the question asks for chairs between them, so exclude both ends.
• Chairs between them = 4 − 1 = 3.
• Hence, there are 3 chairs between P and Q.
Question: If C is the brother of B, B is the son of A, D is the father of C, and A is a woman, then A is —
(a) Sister of D
(b) Husband of D
(c) Wife of D
(d) Mother of D
Answer: c
Solution:
• C is the brother of B → C and B are siblings.
• B is the son of A → A is the mother of B.
• Since C is B’s brother, A is also the mother of C.
• D is the father of C → D is the father of both B and C.
• A is a woman and mother of the children.
• Therefore, A and D are husband and wife.
• Hence, A is the wife of D.
Question: CIRCLE is related to RICELC. In the same way, SQUARE is related to —
(a) UQSERA
(b) UQSARE
(c) ERAUQS
(d) AREUQS
Answer: a
Solution:
• CIRCLE → RICELC
• Write positions:
C I R C L E
1 2 3 4 5 6
• The pattern is: 3 2 1 6 5 4.
• That means the first three letters are reversed, and the last three letters are reversed.
• Apply the same rule to SQUARE:
S Q U A R E
1 2 3 4 5 6
• Reverse first three letters → U Q S.
• Reverse last three letters → E R A.
• Final word = UQSERA.
Question: Raj walks 80 meters from point X towards Y. He then turns right and walks 50 meters, then turns left and walks 70 meters. Finally, he turns right and walks 50 meters. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 30 meters
(b) 45 meters
(c) 20 meters
(d) 10 meters
Answer: d
Solution:
• Raj first walks 80 meters straight.
• He then turns right and walks 50 meters.
• Then he turns left and walks 70 meters.
• Finally, he turns right and walks 50 meters.
• The two 50-meter movements are in opposite directions, so they cancel each other out.
• Effectively, he moves 80 meters forward and 70 meters backward in the same straight line.
• Net displacement = 80 − 70 = 10 meters.
• Therefore, Raj is 10 meters away from the starting point.