71st BPSC Answer Key 2025 With Explanation in Hindi and English [Download 71st BPSC Solution Pdf]

71st BPSC Answer Key 2025 With Explanation in English

1. According to UNDP’s Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India was 58.6 years in 1990. What did it become in 2023?
(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (A) 72 years
Explanation: According to the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) Human Development Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to 72 years in 2023. This is the highest level so far, reflecting improvements in health, education, and living standards. National health programmes such as the National Rural Health Mission, Ayushman Bharat, Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Poshan Abhiyaan have played a significant role in this growth.

2. In February 2025, in which city was the AI Action Summit held?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Paris
Explanation: The AI Action Summit 2025 was held on 10th and 11th February at the Grand Palais in Paris, France. The summit was jointly hosted by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Representatives from more than 100 countries participated, discussing key themes such as public service AI, the future of work, innovation, trust, and global governance. The aim of the summit was to direct the development of AI for public good.

3. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), for which film did Emma Stone win the Oscar for Best Actress in a Leading Role?
(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Poor Things
Explanation: Emma Stone won the Oscar for Best Actress at the 96th Academy Awards (2024) for her leading role in the film Poor Things. She portrayed the character Bella Baxter, who embarks on a journey of self-discovery in Victorian London after a brain transplant. This was her second Oscar win for Best Actress; earlier, she had won in 2017 for La La Land.

4. Which Gujarati film won the award for Best Feature Film for promoting national, social, and environmental values at the 70th National Film Awards?
(A) Hellaro
(B) Chhello Show
(C) Kachchh Express
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Kachchh Express
Explanation: At the 70th National Film Awards, the Gujarati film “Kachchh Express” was awarded the Best Feature Film award. This film effectively presented national, social, and environmental values. The story of the film is based on the lifestyle, social problems, and environmental issues of rural Gujarat and the Kachchh region. Considering its screenplay, direction, and social message, it was honored with this prestigious award.

5. Which individual or organization received the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The winners of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024 include:

• Karma Phuntsho (Bhutan): For cultural preservation and connecting the youth with their heritage.
• Miyazaki Hayao (Japan): Co-founder of Studio Ghibli, for highlighting the human condition through animation.
• Rural Doctors Movement (Thailand): For improving healthcare services in rural areas.

6. Which of the following statements about AkasTeer are correct?
(A) AkasTeer is the core of the Indian Army’s air defense system.
(B) It seamlessly integrates India’s wider C4ISR system.
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defense to active counter-response.
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: AkasTeer is an indigenously developed air defense missile system of the Indian Army. By integrating with the C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance) system, it becomes a part of a broader defense network. Through this, India’s defense strategy shows a significant shift from passive defense to active counter-response. Hence, statements (A), (B), and (C) are all correct.

7. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s indigenous military systems under the ‘Make in India’ initiative?
(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Under the Make in India initiative, India has strengthened its indigenous defence production:

• The Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun is an indigenously developed Indian tank.
• The Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) is fully designed and manufactured in India.
• The F-35 Lightning II is an American platform and not part of India’s indigenous systems.
  Hence, the correct answer is (D).

8. Which day is known as Holocaust Memorial Day?
(A) 15 January
(B) 27 January
(C) 10 February
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) 27 January
Explanation: Holocaust Memorial Day is observed annually on 27 January to commemorate the genocide of Jews and other victims by the Nazis during World War II. The date marks the liberation of the Auschwitz concentration camp in 1945, a symbolic reminder of one of the darkest chapters in human history.

9. Which book by Banu Mushtaq won the International Booker Prize 2025?
(A) Light of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Heart Lamp
Explanation: Heart Lamp is a short story collection by Banu Mushtaq, translated into English by Deepa Basti.

• It became the first work translated from Kannada to win the International Booker Prize.
• The collection contains 12 stories that highlight the struggles faced by women within patriarchal social structures in South India.
  This recognition is not only a literary milestone but also a cultural acknowledgment of regional Indian literature on a global platform.

10. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, three eastern rivers were allocated to India. Which of the following is NOT included among them?
(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Sutlej
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Jhelum
Explanation: According to the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), India was allocated three eastern rivers: Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas. The Jhelum River was allocated to Pakistan, so it is not included among India’s eastern rivers. Hence, the correct answer is Jhelum (A).

11. Which of the following statements about the Capacity Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by UNDP are correct?
I. CPM includes child malnutrition as a representative of deprivation in health and nutrition.
II. Female illiteracy is included to indicate a lack of education and knowledge.
III. It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capacity poverty.
IV. It includes lack of access to safe drinking water as an important indicator of capacity poverty.

Choose the correct code:
(A) I and II
(B) I, II, and III
(C) Only I
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (A) I and II
Explanation: The Capacity Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP is used to assess poverty across dimensions such as health, nutrition, and education. Specifically:

• Child malnutrition represents deprivation in health and nutrition.
• Female illiteracy indicates a lack of education and knowledge.
• Male illiteracy is not included as a primary indicator in CPM.
• Access to safe drinking water is considered, but it is not a primary indicator.

Therefore, only statements I and II are correct.

12. Which of the following items were NOT among the top ten major export commodities from India during April–September 2024–25?
(A) Petroleum products
(B) Iron and steel
(C) Basmati rice
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Basmati rice
Explanation: According to India’s export data for April–September 2024–25, the top ten export commodities included petroleum products, iron and steel, gems and jewelry, textiles, and engineering goods. However, Basmati rice was not among the top ten during this period. The main reason was fluctuations in global demand and increased competition from other countries. Hence, Basmati rice was not a top export commodity.

13. According to the India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
(A) The country’s total forest and tree cover is 15% of its geographical area.
(B) The top three states with the largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and Manipur.
(C) The highest tree cover is found in Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (C) The highest tree cover is found in Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Explanation:
According to ISFR 2023:

• Maharashtra has the highest tree cover in India.
• Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh follow in tree cover.
• The total forest and tree cover in India is around 24.56% of the geographical area, so option (A) is incorrect.
• The top three states with the largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Arunachal Pradesh, not Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar, and Manipur, so option (B) is also incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

14. In 2023, which of the following countries had a higher share than India in global services exports?
(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Ireland
Explanation:
In 2023, Ireland’s share in global services exports exceeded that of India. India’s share was approximately 4.3%, while Ireland’s share was around 5.5%. Russia and Indonesia had a lower share of global services exports compared to India.

15. Which of the following statements about the U-WIN portal of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare are NOT correct?
(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates.
(B) It facilitates the creation of ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts) for parents and children.
(C) The portal is available in 11 regional languages.
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation:
The U-WIN portal is designed for digital services related to health and nutrition. It allows parents to create ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts) for their children and is available in 11 regional languages. Therefore, all the statements given are correct, and none of them is incorrect.

16. Which organization collaborated with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) to develop the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) digital blueprint?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
Explanation:
The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA), in collaboration with MoHUA, prepared the digital blueprint for the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS). This blueprint is designed to enable digital innovation and smart city initiatives in urban areas, enhancing the digitization of urban services and improving administrative efficiency.

17. As of 31 October 2024, under the Bharatmala Project, which state had the highest length of roads constructed?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Rajasthan
Explanation:
Under the Bharatmala Project, as of 31 October 2024, Rajasthan had a total of 2,241 km of roads constructed, the highest among all states. Maharashtra had 1,837 km, and Uttar Pradesh had 1,854 km of roads constructed. These figures are released by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

18. Before the launch of the Kisan Credit Portal (KRP), to which institution did farmers submit manual claims under the Interest Subsidy and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and NABARD
Explanation:
Before the launch of the Kisan Credit Portal (KRP), farmers had to submit manual claims under the Interest Subsidy and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to banks and financial institutions, which were then forwarded to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and NABARD. This process was time-consuming and complex, resulting in delayed benefits reaching the farmers. The KRP portal digitized this process, making it faster and more transparent.

19. India’s foreign exchange reserves –
(A) Increased to approximately USD 640 billion by the end of December 2024.
(B) Are the seventh largest in the world.
(C) Decreased in 2024 due to a BoP deficit of about USD 24 billion.
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Increased to approximately USD 640 billion by the end of December 2024
Explanation:
India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at approximately USD 640.3 billion at the end of December 2024, according to the Reserve Bank of India and the Economic Review 2024-25. India ranks fourth in the world, not seventh. Despite a BoP deficit of about USD 24 billion in 2024, the reserves did not decrease significantly; they remained stable or slightly increased due to capital inflows and valuation gains. Hence, only option (A) is correct.

20. According to NFHS-5 data, which of the following states recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation:
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is determined based on multiple dimensions such as health, education, and standard of living. According to NFHS-5 (2019-21) data:

• Jammu & Kashmir: The multidimensional poverty rate was found to be less than 6%.
• Himachal Pradesh: Only around 4–5% of the population falls under the multidimensionally poor category.
• Uttar Pradesh: The poverty rate was much higher (over 20%), so it is not correct.

Note: Since 2019, Jammu & Kashmir was reorganized as a Union Territory. However, NFHS-5 (2019–21) data was published at the state/UT level as per the administrative status at the time. Therefore, in the report, “Jammu & Kashmir” is presented as a state. The question follows the NFHS report’s terminology, not the current constitutional status. Hence, Jammu & Kashmir (as represented in NFHS-5) is considered correct.

21. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme
(b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Housing and Tangible Income (MISHTI)
(c) Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) Initiative
(d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

List-II

1. Introduced in the Union Budget 2023-24
2. Targets emission reduction in energy-intensive industries
3. Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy
4. Launched at COP26 in Glasgow, November 2021

Options:
(A) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
(B) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(C) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
Explanation:

• PAT Scheme (a): The Perform, Achieve and Trade Scheme is an energy efficiency initiative aimed at reducing energy consumption and emissions in energy-intensive industries. It encourages industries to manage energy efficiently and set performance-based targets.
• MISHTI (b): Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Housing and Tangible Income was introduced in the Union Budget 2023-24. The scheme aims to protect coastal and marine communities, improve their income, and conserve natural resources.
• LiFE Initiative (c): The Lifestyle for Environment initiative was launched at COP26 in Glasgow, November 2021. Its goal is to encourage individuals to adopt environmentally friendly lifestyle choices and mitigate climate change impacts.
• NCAP (d): The National Clean Air Programme was launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy, focusing on improving air quality, identifying pollution sources, and helping states and cities reduce air pollution.

22. According to the Annual PLFS 2023-24 report
(A) Since 2021-22, the labor force participation rate (LFPR) of rural women has increased more than that of urban women.
(B) Out of 36 states and union territories, in 90% of them, the workforce participation rate (WPR) for all ages is below the national average of 43.7%.
(C) The share of female workers in the agricultural sector has declined significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Since 2021-22, the labor force participation rate (LFPR) of rural women has increased more than that of urban women.

Explanation:
According to PLFS 2023-24, the LFPR of rural women increased by 6.1% since 2021-22, whereas the LFPR of urban women increased by only 2.6%. This indicates a faster improvement in female labor participation in rural areas.

Additionally:

• The share of female workers in the agriculture sector has been increasing, not decreasing.
• Most states/UTs have a WPR above the national average of 43.7%, with rural WPR at 56.5% and urban WPR at 47.4%.

Hence, options (B) and (C) are incorrect.

23. Which of the following was NOT a result of the Science, Technology, and Innovation (STI) Policy 2020?
(A) One Nation, One Subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Framework (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)

Explanation:
The STI Policy 2020 launched initiatives to promote research and innovation, including:

• One Nation, One Subscription
• Research and Innovation Excellence Framework (RIEF)

However, the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was started in 2016 to promote innovation at school and college levels. It is not part of the 2020 STI Policy.

24. The share of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) increased from ______ in 2020-21 to ______ in 2022-23.
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 27.3%, 30.1%
(C) 35.1%, 38.2%
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) 27.3%, 30.1%

Explanation:
In India, the GVA share of MSMEs was 27.3% in 2020-21, which increased to 30.1% in 2022-23. This growth reflects the increasing production capacity, export contribution, and employment generation potential of the MSME sector. The MSME sector is crucial for the Indian economy as it provides a stable base for industry, employment, and innovation.

25. Regarding the Indian cement industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. About 87% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
II. India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
III. Most cement plants in India are located away from raw material sources and near ports to support exports.

Choose the correct answer using the code below:
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) I and III
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Only I

Explanation:

• The Indian cement industry is primarily concentrated in states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Maharashtra, which are rich in raw materials like limestone and clay.
• Most plants are located close to raw material sources, not near ports, so statement III is incorrect.
• India is the second-largest producer of cement globally, not the largest, so statement II is also incorrect.
• Therefore, only statement I is correct.

26. What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
(A) Increase school enrollment in primary schools in rural areas.
(B) Provide professional training to teachers at senior secondary level.
(C) Provide individual guidance to students who are lagging to help them reach grade-level competencies.
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Provide individual guidance to students who are lagging to help them reach grade-level competencies.

Explanation:

• Mission Daksh is an education reform initiative by the Bihar government aimed at ensuring grade-level competencies for students in classes 3 to 8.
• The program identifies students who are falling behind and provides them with personalized guidance and support.
• The focus of the mission is not just enrollment or teacher training, but improving learning outcomes.
• It also aims to enhance the quality of education in the state and reduce drop-out rates.

27. Under Bihar Startup Policy 2022, which of the following is/are not a component of the YUVA framework?
(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory support for assistance
(C) International market expansion plans
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) International market expansion plans

Explanation:

• The YUVA framework under Bihar Startup Policy 2022 aims to strengthen the startup ecosystem, promote innovation, and provide necessary support to local entrepreneurs.
• Components of YUVA include innovation in the education system, entrepreneurship capacity building, financial and regulatory support, among others.
• International market expansion plans are not part of the YUVA framework, as its focus is primarily on state-level startup development and maximizing local resources.

28. Regarding Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 compared to the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar’s GSVA (constant prices) was 58.6% in 2023-24.
(C) Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) in 2023-24 was 4.6% of GSDP at current prices.
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:

• According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2023-24, the per capita GSDP increased by 12.8%, which is higher than the previous year.
• The tertiary sector (services) contributed an estimated 58.6% to GSVA, reflecting the growing importance of the service sector in Bihar’s economy.
• Additionally, Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) at current prices was 4.6% of GSDP, indicating ongoing investment activities and long-term development efforts.
• Therefore, more than one statement is correct, making option (D) the right choice.

29. Consider the following statements –
I. The proportion of youth population (0–19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041.
II. Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041.
III. The elderly population (60+ years) in Bihar is expected to grow faster than the national average.

Choose the correct answer using the code below –
(A) I and II are correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (A) I and II are correct

Explanation:

• Youth population (0–19 years):
  In 2011, the youth population was about 49.4%. Due to education, urbanization, and declining fertility rates (TFR), it has been steadily decreasing: 43.5% in 2021, 35.1% in 2031, and projected to be only 30.1% in 2041. Thus, the proportion of children and adolescents will decrease over time. Statement (I) is correct.
• Demographic dividend:
  The share of the working-age population (15–59 years) has been increasing: 43.2% in 2011, 48.9% in 2021, 55.9% in 2031, and projected to reach 58.3% by 2041. This indicates that Bihar will have the largest number of youth and working-age individuals around 2041. Statement (II) is correct.
• Elderly population (60+ years):
  Although the 60+ age group will grow (from 7.4% in 2011 to 11.6% in 2041), this increase is slower than the national average. Bihar will still have one of the lowest proportions of elderly population in the country by 2041. Statement (III) is incorrect.

30. According to PLFS 2023-24, which statement best describes the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular salaried jobs.
(B) Most women are self-employed, often working as helpers in household enterprises.
(C) Most women were employed in the secondary sector.
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Most women are self-employed, often working as helpers in household enterprises

Explanation:

• According to PLFS 2023-24, women’s employment in Bihar is primarily in self-employment and the informal sector.
• A large number of women are involved in household enterprises, family businesses, and supporting roles.
• Participation in formal and regular salaried jobs is very low.
• Most women are engaged in primary and agricultural activities, with limited representation in secondary and tertiary sectors.
• This shows that the employment structure of women in Bihar is largely informal and self-employment based.

31. The power to appoint staff of the Lok Sabha Secretariat vests in:
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Prime Minister’s Office
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: (D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation:
The ultimate authority to appoint the staff of the Lok Sabha Secretariat lies with the President of India, but appointments are made after consulting the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. This ensures that the administrative structure of the Secretariat maintains the autonomy and efficiency of Parliament. Secretariat staff assist in the functioning of the House, and their appointments require approval by the President based on the Speaker’s advice. This system balances parliamentary autonomy and the appointment process within India’s constitutional framework.

32. The Attorney General of India:
(A) Advises the President on legal matters
(B) Is not authorized to appear before the Supreme Court
(C) Cannot participate in proceedings of either House of Parliament
(D) Is a full-time advisor to the government

Correct Answer: (A) Advises the President on legal matters

Explanation:
The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India under the Constitution. Their main duty is to advise the President and the central government on legal matters. Additionally, the Attorney General can represent the government in the Supreme Court. They are not full-time government employees but act as legal advisors and representatives. They do not participate in parliamentary proceedings but may provide legal advice when required.

33. Under the various lists of the Indian Constitution, which of the following subjects fall under the Concurrent List?
I. Protection of wildlife
II. Income on agriculture
III. Tax on electricity consumption or sales
IV. Price control

(A) II and III are correct
(B) I and IV are correct
(C) Only IV is correct
(D) Only II is correct

Correct Answer: (B) I and IV are correct

Explanation:

• I. Protection of wildlife → Through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), wildlife protection was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List, allowing both the Centre and States to legislate on it.
• II. Income on agriculture → Falls under the State List, and only state governments can legislate.
• III. Tax on electricity consumption or sales → Electricity is under the Concurrent List, but taxation authority comes under the State List, so it is not fully in the Concurrent List.
• IV. Price control → This is in the Concurrent List, and both the Centre and States can make laws on it.

Hence, the correct subjects in the Concurrent List are Protection of wildlife and Price control.

34. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy are not aligned with Gandhian principles?
I. Formation of Gram Panchayats
II. Uniform Civil Code
III. Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas
IV. Right to work

(A) Only II
(B) I and II
(C) II and IV
(D) I and III

Correct Answer: (C) II and IV

Explanation:

• Gandhian principles are reflected in certain Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution (Articles 40, 43, 46, etc.).
• Aligned with Gandhian principles:
  • Formation of Gram Panchayats (Article 40): Gandhi advocated for Gram Swaraj and self-governing villages.
  • Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas (Article 43): Gandhi emphasized self-reliance and development of village industries.
• Not aligned with Gandhian principles:
  • Uniform Civil Code (II) – Gandhi supported personal laws respecting community traditions.
  • Right to work (IV) – While important, this is not specifically derived from Gandhian philosophy.

35. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Oath format – Third Schedule
(B) Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha – Fourth Schedule
(C) Administration of Scheduled Areas – Sixth Schedule
(D) Union List – Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer: (C) Administration of Scheduled Areas – Sixth Schedule

Explanation:

• A. Oath format – Third Schedule: Correct. The Third Schedule contains formats for the oaths of President, Vice-President, MPs, etc.
• B. Rajya Sabha seat allocation – Fourth Schedule: Correct. The Fourth Schedule specifies the allocation of seats among states and union territories.
• C. Administration of Scheduled Areas – Sixth Schedule: Incorrect. The Sixth Schedule pertains only to certain tribal areas and autonomous councils, not all Scheduled Areas. Hence, this pair is mismatched.
• D. Union List – Seventh Schedule: Correct. The Union List is part of the Seventh Schedule.

36. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Government:
I. The creation of ministries and departments is done by the Prime Minister in consultation with the Cabinet Secretary.
II. Each minister is allotted a ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Neither I nor II is correct

Correct Answer: (B) Only II is correct

Explanation:

• I. Creation of ministries and departments by the PM in consultation with Cabinet Secretary: Incorrect. Ministries and departments are created according to the Constitution or law. While the Prime Minister plays a key role, there is no provision that only consultation with the Cabinet Secretary is required.
• II. Allocation of ministries to ministers by the President on PM’s advice: Correct. Article 75 of the Constitution states that the President allocates ministries to ministers based on the advice of the Prime Minister.

37. What is true about the proceedings of a state legislature?

(A) The Advocate General has the right to vote.
(B) Business in the legislature will be transacted only in the official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
(C) It can discuss the conduct of a high court judge.
(D) The validity of the proceedings can be questioned on the basis of an alleged irregularity.

Correct Answer: (B) Business in the legislature will be transacted only in the official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.

Explanation:

• The proceedings in a state legislature are held under the Constitution and state law.
• Proceedings are conducted in the official language of the state, and additionally, the house can also work in Hindi or English.
• (A) is incorrect: The Advocate General does not have the right to vote in the legislature.
• (C) is incorrect: Discussing the conduct of a high court judge is not within the jurisdiction of the legislature.
• (D) is incorrect: The right to question the validity of proceedings is only available under limited circumstances.

38. The Indian Constitution provides for reasonable restrictions on fundamental rights, but the justification must consider that:

I. The interests of the general public are protected.
II. Existing social values and social needs are not hindered.
III. Directive Principles of State Policy can be ignored.
IV. Collective interest is not extensive.

(A) II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) Only IV is correct
(D) Only I is correct

Correct Answer: (B) I and II are correct (BPSC Ans D)

Explanation:

• The NCERT Class 11 Political Science textbook, Indian Constitution at Work, mentions the reasonable restrictions imposed on fundamental rights.

Fundamental Rights Are Not Unlimited

• The textbook clarifies that fundamental rights are not absolute or unlimited. The government can impose ‘reasonable restrictions’ on the exercise of these rights. However, for these restrictions to be valid, they must be based on certain grounds.

Statement I: The interests of the general public are protected

• This statement is correct. Restrictions are based on reasons such as ‘public order’, ‘morality’, and ‘interests of the general public’.
• Example: An individual has the right to hold a religious gathering, but if that gathering disrupts public order or incites animosity, it can be restricted.

Statement II: Existing social values and social needs are not hindered

• This statement is also correct. The government considers the moral values and social needs of society while imposing restrictions.
• Example: Laws against social evils like Sati or child marriage are valid, even if some consider it interference in religious affairs.

Statement III: Directive Principles of State Policy can be ignored

• This statement is incorrect. Directive Principles are fundamental for governance and must be considered in law-making. Courts have held that restrictions on fundamental rights may be imposed to implement Directive Principles.

Statement IV: Collective interest is not extensive

• This statement is incorrect. Collective interest is considered broad and important; restrictions maintain a balance between individual freedom and broader societal interests.
• Conclusion: Only statements I and II are correct. Hence, the correct option is (B).

39. Who determines the necessary qualifications for a member of the Finance Commission?

(A) Council of Ministers
(B) President of India
(C) By Parliament law
(D) Union Cabinet

Correct Answer: (C) By Parliament law

Explanation:

• According to Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the authority to constitute the Finance Commission and appoint its members.
• However, the criteria for qualifications and eligibility of the members are determined through a law passed by Parliament.
• This law specifies the expertise or experience required for appointment, such as specialization in finance, administration, economics, or accounting.
• Therefore, the necessary qualifications of a member are prescribed according to the Parliamentary law.

40. Consider the following statements:

I. Summoning the House means Diaksant (formal commencement).
II. Adjournment leads to the end of the session.
III. Dissolution terminates the House.
IV. Adjournment is done solely by the Leader of the House.

Which of these is incorrect?

(A) I and III
(B) II and III
(C) Only II
(D) Only IV

Correct Answer: (D) Only IV

Explanation:

1. Summoning:
   • A session of Parliament is called by the President, known as Summoning in English.
   • In Hindi, it is sometimes referred to as “आह्वान” or ceremonially as “दीक्षांत,” which literally means formal commencement.
   • Therefore, Statement I is not incorrect.
2. Adjournment:
   • Adjournment refers to temporarily suspending the proceedings of the House for a short time or until a specified date.
   • It does not end the session, hence it is not Prorogation.
   • Statement II is technically wrong in strict terms but is often considered correct in general usage.
3. Dissolution:
   • Dissolution applies only to the Lok Sabha.
   • It means the complete termination of the House, after which new elections are conducted.
   • Statement III is correct.
4. Who can adjourn the House?
   • The power to adjourn rests only with the Speaker/Chairperson/Deputy Speaker, not the Leader of the House.
   • Therefore, Statement IV is definitely incorrect.

41. Who is authorized to review the financial position of Panchayats?

(A) Chairman of the Block Committee
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chairman of the Zila Parishad
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

Correct Answer: (D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

Explanation:

• The authority to review the financial position, budgets, and grants of Panchayats in the state rests with the State Finance Commission.
• This commission is appointed by the Governor and its purpose is to financially empower the Panchayati Raj institutions.
• The Chairmen of the Block Committee or Zila Parishad are responsible for local administration and oversight but do not have the authority for financial review.

42. The Self-Reliant India (Atmanirbhar Bharat) scheme helps in:

I. Increasing India’s manufacturing capacity and exports from industries.
II. Promoting foreign investment in domestic production.

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Neither I nor II is correct

Correct Answer: (C) Both I and II are correct

Explanation:

• The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan aims to enhance India’s domestic production capacity, strengthen industries, and promote exports.
• It also provides incentives to attract foreign investment and boost domestic manufacturing, for example, through Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes.
• Therefore, both statements I and II are correct.

43. What is the main objective of Panchayati Raj?

(A) Employment generation
(B) Increasing agricultural production
(C) Raising political awareness among the people
(D) Enabling people to participate in development administration

Correct Answer: (D) Enabling people to participate in development administration

Explanation:

• The primary aim of the Panchayati Raj system is to empower local self-governance and provide people direct participation in development and administration.
• It ensures that rural citizens are actively involved in village development, planning, and decision-making processes.
• While Panchayati Raj also helps in raising political awareness, its main objective is to ensure public participation in local development administration.

44. What is true about a censure motion?

(A) It is different from a no-confidence motion.
(B) It is not different from a no-confidence motion.
(C) Mentioning the reason in this motion is not mandatory.
(D) Permission of the House is not required to move it.

Correct Answer: (A) It is different from a no-confidence motion.

Explanation:

• A Censure Motion and a No-Confidence Motion are distinct:
  • Censure Motion: Its purpose is to criticize the policies or actions of a minister or government. It is merely a medium for criticism, and even if passed, it does not compel the minister or government to resign.
  • No-Confidence Motion: If this is passed, the entire government is obliged to resign.
• In a Censure Motion, the House’s permission is required, and usually the reason is mentioned, but its purpose is primarily review and criticism.
• Therefore, a Censure Motion is different from a No-Confidence Motion.

45. Which of the following subjects falls under the jurisdiction of both High Courts and the Supreme Court?

(A) Disputes between states
(B) Disputes between the Centre and states
(C) Protection of fundamental rights
(D) Protection from violation of the Constitution

Correct Answer: (C) Protection of fundamental rights

Explanation:

• The protection of fundamental rights falls under the jurisdiction of both the Supreme Court and the High Courts under the Indian Constitution.
• Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court as the primary guardian of fundamental rights.
• Article 226 empowers High Courts to protect fundamental rights, allowing any person in the state to file a petition if their rights are violated.
• Disputes between states (Article 131) and Centre-State disputes (Articles 131/262) fall specifically under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Protection from constitutional violations is also related to fundamental rights, but the primary mechanism is the judiciary, i.e., both High Courts and the Supreme Court.

46. Which Indian leader in the Congress first criticized the ‘Safety-Valve Theory’ applied by the liberals?

(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

Correct Answer: (A) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation:

• The ‘Safety-Valve Theory’ was the idea that the British rulers tried to control revolutionary activities and public discontent in India by allowing limited political freedoms.
• Lala Lajpat Rai was the first in Congress to criticize the liberal leaders for adopting this theory and trying to pacify public unrest.
• He considered it a measure that weakened the independence movement and inspired youth and revolutionaries to recognize and oppose it.
• This theory became a key point of political difference between the moderate/liberal leaders of the Indian National Congress and the revolutionary groups.

47. On which Viceroy was a bomb thrown during his ceremonial entry into Delhi?

(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Lord Harding
(D) Lord Wavell

Correct Answer: (C) Lord Harding

Explanation:

• The incident occurred on 23 December 1912, when the capital of India was being shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
• During the royal procession in Delhi, Basant Kumar Biswas, a member of the Anushilan Samiti, threw a bomb at Lord Harding’s elephant.
• The elephant’s mahout died, and Lord Harding was injured but survived.
• This incident is also referred to as the Delhi Conspiracy Case or Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy.
• It is considered a significant example of revolutionary activity and resistance against British rule during the Indian freedom struggle.

48. Who got the opportunity to become a professor of Indian Philosophy at the University of California in 1911?

(A) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
(B) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(C) Har Dayal
(D) Shyamji Krishna Verma

Correct Answer: (C) Har Dayal

Explanation:

• Har Dayal was a prominent revolutionary and thinker in the Indian independence movement.
• In 1911, he was appointed as a Professor of Indian Philosophy at the University of California, Berkeley.
• There, he taught about Indian philosophy, culture, and ideas related to the freedom struggle.
• During his time in the U.S., he played a significant role in Indian revolutionary activities and the Ghadar Movement.
• His work contributed to the propagation of Indian ideology internationally and supported the independence movement.

49. Name the principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who promoted Muslim communal consciousness in the last decades of the 19th century?

(A) Minto
(B) Dunlop Smith
(C) William Morris
(D) Theodore Beck

Correct Answer: (D) Theodore Beck

Explanation:

• Theodore Beck was the principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh during the last decades of the 19th century.
• Under his leadership, the college promoted communal consciousness among Muslim youth and fostered identity through education.
• This was part of the Muslim Renaissance movement (Aligarh Movement) initiated by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.
• Beck emphasized providing modern education to Muslim students while also maintaining their cultural and religious identity.
• His efforts made M.A.O. College a center of leadership and organized consciousness within the Muslim community.

50. Who started ‘The Young India’, a national newspaper?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Correct Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation:

• ‘The Young India’ was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919.
• It was published in English and served as a medium to spread the spirit of the Indian freedom struggle and raise awareness against British rule.
• Gandhi expressed his views on Satyagraha, non-violence, and social reforms through this newspaper.
• It became an important tool for propagating Gandhi’s political writings and movements.

51. The Maginot Line is located between which countries?

(A) France and Germany
(B) USA and Canada
(C) Namibia and Angola
(D) South Korea and North Korea

Correct Answer: (A) France and Germany

Explanation:

• The Maginot Line was a system of fortifications built by France along its border with Germany.
• Constructed in the 1930s, it was based on experiences from World War I.
• Its primary purpose was to prevent German invasions and protect France’s border.
• The line included forts, bunkers, underground passages, and military structures.

52. The Strait of Hormuz connects which bodies of water?

(A) Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden
(B) Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman
(C) Red Sea to the Indian Ocean
(D) Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea

Correct Answer: (B) Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman

Explanation:

• The Strait of Hormuz is a crucial waterway in West Asia.
• It connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and further to the Arabian Sea.
• It is vital for global energy trade, as a significant portion of the world’s oil and natural gas passes through it.
• Security of the strait is critical for international maritime trade and global economy.

53. Where is ‘Ground Zero’?

(A) New York
(B) Greenwich
(C) Indira Point
(D) Sriharikota

Correct Answer: (A) New York

Explanation:

• Ground Zero refers to the site of the World Trade Center ruins after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks.
• It is located in New York City.
• The 9/11 Memorial and Museum has been established at this site.

54. Which strait is known as ‘Devil’s Neck’?

(A) Kra Isthmus
(B) Panama Isthmus
(C) Karelian Isthmus
(D) Corinth Isthmus

Correct Answer: (A) Kra Isthmus

Explanation:

• Devil’s Neck refers to the dangerous waterway near the Kra Isthmus (Cabo de Horn / Kra Isthmus).
• This route is considered challenging and hazardous for navigation.
• Due to heavy sea storms and narrow passages, it is called the “Devil’s Neck”.

55. Ladang refers to:

(A) Plantation agriculture
(B) Shifting cultivation
(C) Type of agricultural produce
(D) Dry farming

Correct Answer: (B) Shifting cultivation

Explanation:

• Ladang is a traditional agricultural system, also called Shifting Cultivation in Swedish or Indonesian contexts.
• In this system, farmers use a piece of land for a few years and then move to another plot, allowing the previous land to naturally regain fertility.
• It is mainly practiced in rainforests and tropical regions.

56. Which is the largest river island in the world?

(A) Majuli Island
(B) Srirangam Island
(C) Bhavani Island
(D) Agatti Island

Correct Answer: (A) Majuli Island

Explanation:

• Majuli is a river island located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam, India.
• It is considered the largest river island in the world.
• Its area is gradually decreasing due to river erosion and flooding.
• Majuli is also famous for its culture and traditional Assamese lifestyle.

57. Which is the second largest river basin in India?

(A) Narmada River Basin
(B) Mahanadi River Basin
(C) Godavari River Basin
(D) Cauvery River Basin

Correct Answer: (C) Godavari River Basin

Explanation:

• The largest river basin in India is the Ganga River Basin.
• The Godavari River Basin comes next and is spread across southern India.
• The Godavari River is approximately 1,465 km long, and its basin extends over Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
• This river is vital for agriculture and water supply.

58. At which place do the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers meet?

(A) Karnaprayag
(B) Vishnuprayag
(C) Rudraprayag
(D) Devprayag

Correct Answer: (D) Devprayag

Explanation:

• Devprayag, located in Uttarakhand, is the place where the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers converge to form the Ganga.
• It is considered highly sacred in Hinduism and is famous as the origin of the Ganga.
• Other prayags like Karnaprayag, Vishnuprayag, and Rudraprayag are confluences of other rivers in the region.

59. Which are the two volcanic islands in the Indian territory?

(A) Bitarra and Kavaratti
(B) Kavaratti and New Moore
(C) Pamban and Barren
(D) Narcondam and Barren

Correct Answer: (D) Narcondam and Barren

Explanation:

• Narcondam and Barren are volcanic islands located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India.
• These islands are known for active or dormant volcanoes.
• Other options like Bitarra, Kavaratti, and Pamban are not volcanic islands; they are primarily marine or reef islands.

60. Which item from Meerut has received a GI tag?

(A) Musical Instruments
(B) Sports Equipment
(C) Laddoo
(D) Scissors

Correct Answer: (D) Scissors

Explanation:

• Meerut scissors are renowned for their sharpness and long-lasting quality and received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2013.
• These scissors are mostly made from scrap metal and are popular among industrial garment manufacturers.
• The GI tag ensures that the product’s quality and unique identity are linked to its geographical origin.
• Meerut scissors are recognized for strong blades, durable handles, and precise cutting ability, widely used both domestically and industrially.
• The GI tag also enhanced their market recognition and export potential.

61. In which city is the Temperate Forest Research Centre located in India?

(A) Ranchi
(B) Shimla
(C) Srinagar
(D) Dehradun

Correct Answer: (B) Shimla

Explanation:

• The Himalayan Forest Research Institute (HFRI) is located in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
• It focuses on research related to temperate forests in the Himalayan region.
• Studies include flora, fauna, and ecosystems, as well as forest management, conservation, and biodiversity protection policies.
• Research also addresses climate change, land use, and sustainable development.
• The institute contributes to forest research nationally and internationally and conducts training and awareness programs.

62. Where is Kanha National Park located?

(A) Assam
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:

• Kanha National Park is the largest national park in Madhya Pradesh. It spans Mandla and Balaghat districts and is famous for tigers and the rare Barasingha (swamp deer).
• The park has dense forests, open grasslands, and rivers, which help maintain biodiversity.
• It is important for wildlife conservation, tourism, and education.
• Kanha has implemented several successful species conservation programs, such as tiger and Barasingha protection.
• It is also a popular destination for tourists and wildlife photographers.

63. ‘Loktak’ is a ________.

(A) Lake
(B) Valley
(C) River
(D) Mountain Range

Correct Answer: (A) Lake

Explanation:

• Loktak Lake is located in Manipur, northeastern India. It is the largest freshwater lake in the region and is famous for its floating vegetation and soil islands called ‘Phumdis’.
• The Keibul Lamjao National Park, located on the lake, is the world’s only floating national park.
• The lake supports the livelihood of local fishermen and villagers.
• Its ecology and biodiversity include fish, waterfowl, and aquatic plants.
• Loktak Lake also holds cultural significance, as local festivals and religious activities are conducted here.
• The floating islands and natural beauty make it a tourist attraction.

64. Which park/reserve in Bihar comes under Project Tiger?

(A) Valmiki National Park
(B) Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) None of these

Correct Answer: (A) Valmiki National Park

Explanation:

• Valmiki National Park is Bihar’s key Project Tiger site.
• It is located in East Champaran district and is crucial for tiger conservation.
• The park features grasslands, river valleys, and dense forests, providing ideal habitat for tigers and other wildlife.
• Species such as Barasingha, elephants, leopards, and wild boars are also found here.
• The park is important for wildlife tourism, education, and biodiversity conservation at both the state and national level.

Top of Form

65. What is the state animal of Bihar?

(A) Bull
(B) Cow
(C) Buffalo
(D) Horse

Correct Answer: (A) Bull

Explanation:

• The Government of Bihar has declared the bull as the state animal, keeping in mind wildlife conservation and cultural heritage.
• Traditionally, bulls have been used in rural agricultural work, but with mechanization, their use has declined, putting their existence at risk.
• The government has given the bull the state animal status to preserve and promote it.
• Other state symbols of Bihar:
  • State bird: Sparrow
  • State flower: Marigold
  • State tree: Peepal
  • State animal: Bull

66. In which year was Nalanda University re-established in Bihar?

(A) 2007
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2014

Correct Answer: (D) 2014

Explanation:

• Nalanda University, an ancient center of learning, was re-established through the Nalanda University Act passed in 2007.
• Its official inauguration and academic activities began in 2014.
• The university is located in Rajgir, Nalanda district, Bihar and aims to promote collaboration and research among major educational institutions across Asia and the world.
• The ancient university was originally established in the 5th century CE by Kumaragupta I and was destroyed in the 12th century by Bakhtiyar Khilji.
• The re-established university is an international institution with participation from multiple countries.

67. Where does the Karmanasa River originate?

(A) Vaishali District
(B) Kaimur District
(C) Patna District
(D) Bikram District

Correct Answer: (B) Kaimur District

Explanation:

• The Karmanasa River originates from the Kaimur Hills in Kaimur district, Bihar.
• It flows near the Bihar–Uttar Pradesh border and eventually merges with the Ganga River.
• The river holds historical and cultural significance, mentioned in ancient texts and folklore.
• It is approximately 192 km long and serves local communities for irrigation.
• Despite its utility, local beliefs often consider it an “inauspicious” river.

68. What percentage of India’s total pyrite production comes from Bihar?

(A) 85%
(B) 75%
(C) 95%
(D) 100%

Correct Answer: (C) 95%

Explanation:

• Bihar accounts for approximately 95% of India’s total pyrite (FeS₂) production.
• Pyrite is mainly used in the production of sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), which is crucial for fertilizer, chemical, and metallurgical industries.
• Major deposits are found in Hazaribagh, Singhbhum (now in Jharkhand), and Kaimur regions.
• Bihar’s pyrite reserves are significant as they form a backbone for the fertilizer industry.

69. In which district of Bihar is gold found?

(A) Jamui District
(B) Gaya District
(C) Nalanda District
(D) Bhagalpur District

Correct Answer: (A) Jamui District

Explanation:

• The largest source of gold in Bihar is Jamui district.
• According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), about 44% of India’s total gold reserves are concentrated in Jamui.
• The Sonaghat region of Jamui is rich in gold minerals.
• These reserves establish Bihar as a mineral-rich state and could significantly boost India’s future gold production capacity.

70. Most of Bihar falls under which climatic zone?

(A) Tropical savanna
(B) Subtropical monsoon
(C) Hot and dry
(D) Hot and semi-arid

Correct Answer: (B) Subtropical monsoon

Explanation:

• Bihar’s climate is mainly subtropical monsoon.
• Summer is very hot, with temperatures exceeding 40°C, while winter is cool and dry.
• Rainfall occurs mostly from June to September due to the southwest monsoon, with an annual average of approximately 1200 mm.
• This climate is suitable for agriculture, especially crops like rice, wheat, maize, and sugarcane.
• The monsoon climate significantly affects Bihar’s economy and social life.

71. A wooden box is pushed on the floor with a force of 200 N at a constant velocity. What is the limiting frictional force?

(A) 200 N
(B) 100 N
(C) 300 N
(D) 400 N

Correct Answer: (A) 200 N

Explanation:

• When an object moves at constant velocity, the applied force is balanced by the frictional force.
• Here, the applied force on the wooden box is 200 N. Since it moves at constant velocity, the limiting friction force is also 200 N.
• If the friction were less, the box would accelerate; if more, the box would not move.

72. A truck starts rolling down a hill from rest with constant acceleration. It covers 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the mass of the truck is 7 tons, what is the force acting on it?

(A) 12000 N
(B) 11000 N
(C) 13000 N
(D) 14000 N

Correct Answer: (D) 14000 N

Explanation:

73. A house consumes 250 units of energy in a month. What is the total energy in joules?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Correct Answer: (C)  

Explanation:

74. In which medium does sound travel fastest?

(A) Water
(B) Steel
(C) Air
(D) Hydrogen

Correct Answer: (B) Steel

Explanation:

• The speed of sound depends on the elasticity and density of the medium.
• In solids, particles are closely packed, allowing vibrations to transmit faster.
• Steel, a solid, has a sound speed of approximately 5960 m/s, which is much higher than water (~1500 m/s), air (~343 m/s), and hydrogen (~1284 m/s).
• This explains why a train moving on tracks can be heard through rails before the sound reaches the ears through air.

75. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.

(A) Does not violate the law of conservation of energy
(B) Violates the law of conservation of energy
(C) Violates gravitational force
(D) Does not violate gravitational force

Correct Answer: (A) Does not violate the law of conservation of energy

Explanation:

• As a body falls freely, its potential energy decreases, but this energy is converted into kinetic energy.
• The total mechanical energy (Potential + Kinetic) remains constant.
• Therefore, the decrease in potential energy does not violate energy conservation, it demonstrates it in action.

76. A pair of bulls exerts a force of 140 N while plowing a field. If the plowed field is 15 meters long, how much work is done?

(A) 2000 J
(B) 1900 J
(C) 2100 J
(D) 2200 J

Correct Answer: (C) 2100 J

Explanation:

• Work = Force × Displacement × cosθ
• Here, force and displacement are in the same direction ⇒ cosθ = 1

W=140×15=2100 J

• Hence, the work done in plowing the field is 2100 joules.

77. What is the focal length of a plane mirror?
(A) -1 cm
(B) +1 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) Infinite
Correct Answer: (D) Infinite
Explanation:
In a plane mirror, the reflected rays always appear to come from behind the mirror. In reality, the rays never converge at a single point, so the radius of curvature of a plane mirror is considered infinite. Since focal length (f) is half of the radius of curvature (R), the focal length of a plane mirror is also infinite.

78. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in an electric circuit?
(A) IR²
(B) I²R
(C) VI
(D) V²/R
Correct Answer: (A) IR²
Explanation:
In an electric circuit, power (P) can be calculated in several forms:

• P = VI (Voltage × Current)
• P = I²R (when resistance and current are known)
• P = V²/R (when voltage and resistance are known)
  But IR² is not a valid equation for power. Hence, this term does not represent electrical power.

79. What happens to the value of electric current in a circuit during a short circuit?
(A) Remains unchanged
(B) Becomes very low
(C) Increases excessively
(D) Keeps changing continuously
Correct Answer: (C) Increases excessively
Explanation:
A short circuit occurs when a path of very low resistance is formed between two points in a circuit. According to Ohm’s law (V = IR), when resistance (R) becomes very small, the current (I) increases enormously. In this condition, the current flowing in the circuit may become many times greater than normal. As a result, wires heat up, sparks are produced, and even fire may occur. This is why fuses and circuit breakers are installed in electric circuits so that the current is immediately stopped during a short circuit, keeping appliances and households safe.

80. The device that protects appliances from electric shock is:
(A) Generator
(B) Fuse
(C) Motor
(D) Current regulator
Correct Answer: (B) Fuse
Explanation:
A fuse is a safety device that melts and breaks the circuit when excessive current flows through it. It protects appliances and users from electric shocks and accidents like fire. The wire used in a fuse is made of a high-resistance metal, which melts immediately if the current exceeds a specified limit. This is why it is called a Safety Device. In modern electrical circuits, MCBs (Miniature Circuit Breakers) and ELCBs (Earth Leakage Circuit Breakers) are also widely used, but traditionally, the fuse has been the most important protection tool.

81. The pH value of 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately:
(A) 11.0
(B) 1.0
(C) 10
(D) 2.0
Correct Answer: (B) 1.0
Explanation:
HCl is a strong acid that ionizes completely in water. To calculate the pH of an acidic solution, the formula is used:

in 0.1 N HCl Solution = 0.1 M

Therefore, the pH of 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately 1.0, which shows it is a highly acidic solution. In competitive exams, pH-related questions are frequently asked, so it is important to remember that the pH of 0.1 N HCl is around 1, while that of 1 N HCl is around 0.

82. Which compound is known as a night-glowing pigment?
(A) Copper sulfide doped zinc oxide
(B) Europium doped strontium aluminate
(C) Barium sulfate doped copper carbonate
(D) Boron oxide doped copper sulfate
Correct Answer: (B) Europium doped strontium aluminate
Explanation:
Europium doped strontium aluminate is the main luminous pigment that glows at night. This compound absorbs light and then slowly emits it in the dark, making it glow at night. It is also known as a phosphorescent or glow-in-the-dark pigment. This material is mainly used in signboards, emergency markings, watches, and decorative items.

83. Which material is used for smart films?
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Indium tin oxide
(C) Zinc chloride
(D) Silica
Correct Answer: (B) Indium tin oxide
Explanation:
In smart films or smart glass, Indium Tin Oxide (ITO) is used. It is a transparent conducting material that can change its transparency when electric current is applied. Smart films are mainly used in windows, glass dividers, privacy screens, and energy-efficient buildings. When the power supply is on, it becomes transparent, and when off, it turns opaque.

84. Which metal compound is used in the treatment of carcinoma?
(A) Chromium
(B) Platinum
(C) Iron
(D) Chlorine
Correct Answer: (B) Platinum
Explanation:
In the treatment of carcinoma (a type of cancer), platinum-based compounds like Cisplatin and Carboplatin are used. These compounds damage the DNA of cancer cells and inhibit their growth, leading to the death of cancerous cells. Platinum compounds are primarily used in the treatment of ovarian, lung, bladder, and testicular cancers.

85. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
(A) Levonorgestrel
(B) Cholecalciferol
(C) Venlafaxine
(D) Cetirizine
Correct Answer: (A) Levonorgestrel
Explanation:
Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestin used in contraceptive pills (both emergency contraceptive pills and regular combination pills). It prevents ovulation and thus effectively prevents pregnancy. It is approved as a contraceptive in many countries, including Europe and India. The other options are:

• Cholecalciferol – Vitamin D3.
• Venlafaxine – An antidepressant drug.
• Cetirizine – An antihistamine.
  Thus, only Levonorgestrel is effective in contraceptive pills.

86. Why is oil not stored in galvanized iron pots?
(A) It forms toxic compounds
(B) It reduces the quality of oil
(C) Rusting is observed
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
Keeping oil in galvanized iron pots causes multiple problems:

• Chemical reaction: The iron and zinc coating may react with oil, forming toxic compounds.
• Quality degradation: The taste, color, and aroma of oil get affected.
• Rusting: Due to moisture in oil and reaction with the metal, rust may occur.
  Therefore, storing oil in galvanized iron pots is harmful both for health and for maintaining quality.

87. Which compound is used to increase octane rating?
(A) Tetramethyl oxide
(B) Trimethyl hexane
(C) Tetraethyl lead
(D) Triethyl toluene
Correct Answer: (C) Tetraethyl lead
Explanation:
Tetraethyl lead (TEL) was used in petrol to increase the octane number. It controlled fuel combustion and reduced engine knocking. However, due to its toxic and environmental effects, it has been banned in many countries. Instead, compounds like MTBE (Methyl tert-butyl ether), ethanol, and other octane enhancers are now used.

88. The full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer is:
(A) Polyhydroxy butane veratric acid
(B) Polyhydroxy butyl vanillin
(C) Poly (3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate)
(D) Polyhydroxy butyric acid veratric acid
Correct Answer: (C) Poly (3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate)
Explanation:
PHBV (Poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate)) is a biodegradable polymer used to reduce the environmental impact of plastics. It is produced from agricultural waste and microbial fermentation. PHBV is applied in packaging, textiles, medical implants, and other biodegradable products. Its major advantage is that it completely degrades under natural conditions and does not harm the environment.

89. Hormones are secreted by which of the following?
(A) Reproductive glands
(B) Sebaceous glands
(C) Exocrine glands
(D) Endocrine glands
Correct Answer: (D) Endocrine glands
Explanation:
Endocrine glands are those glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Hormones regulate various biological processes in the body such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, and metabolism. For example, adrenal gland, pineal gland, thyroid, ovary, and testis are endocrine glands. In contrast, exocrine glands such as sweat glands and salivary glands release secretions directly onto the body surface or into organs.

90. Which of the following terms represents the interaction between Herpes Simplex Virus and humans?
(A) Symbiosis
(B) Parasitism
(C) Endosymbiosis
(D) Endoparasitism
Correct Answer: (B) Parasitism
Explanation:
Parasitism is a biological relationship in which one organism (parasite) fulfills its needs by harming another organism (host). Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) enters the human body, uses the host’s cells to replicate its chromosomes, and causes harm to humans. Therefore, it is called a parasitic relationship.
• Symbiosis (Mutualism): Both organisms benefit.
• Endosymbiosis: One organism lives inside another, but not always beneficial.
• Endoparasitism: A specific type of parasitism where the organism lives inside the host. HSV falls under this, but the broader term used is “parasitism.”

91. Which is the first class of immunoglobulin formed in response to infection?
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgE
Correct Answer: (C) IgM
Explanation:
IgM immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in the early stage of infection. It is produced by B-cells and provides immediate defense against new infections. IgM has a pentamer structure, which makes it capable of quickly binding and neutralizing pathogens. After this, IgG and other immunoglobulins such as IgA and IgE are formed, which provide long-term and specific immunity.

92. Biological membranes are made up of what?
(A) Various combinations of lipids and proteins that are specific for each species, cell type, and organ
(B) Only lipids
(C) Only proteins
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Various combinations of lipids and proteins that are specific for each species, cell type, and organ
Explanation:
Biological membranes are mainly composed of a phospholipid bilayer and proteins. They are essential for functions such as maintaining cell structure, transport of substances, signal transduction, and cellular recognition. The composition of membranes varies according to species, cell type, and organ. Lipids provide flexibility and semi-permeability to the membrane, while proteins regulate its specific functionality and communication ability.

93. Which of the following is a nonsense codon?
(A) AUG
(B) UAA
(C) UUU
(D) UGC
Correct Answer: (B) UAA
Explanation:
UAA is a stop/nonsense codon that halts translation during protein synthesis. It does not code for any amino acid and signals the ribosome to terminate protein formation when the messenger RNA (mRNA) reaches the end. Among the other options, AUG is the start codon for methionine, while UUU and UGC code for specific amino acids (phenylalanine and cysteine, respectively).

94. Species that are in danger of extinction are called what?
(A) Rare
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Endangered
(D) Extinct
Correct Answer: (C) Endangered
Explanation:
Endangered species are those whose numbers or habitats have declined so much that their natural survival has become difficult. They are classified as threatened by the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature). For example, the Bengal tiger, Indian rhinoceros, and several species of gaur.
• Rare: Found in very small numbers but not yet highly threatened.
• Vulnerable: At risk but less than endangered.
• Extinct: A species that has completely disappeared.

95. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Barley
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Gram
(D) Wheat
Correct Answer: (B) Sugarcane
Explanation:
Kharif crops are those that are sown in the rainy season, mainly during June–July, and harvested in September–October. Sugarcane, rice, maize, and soybean are major Kharif crops.
• Barley and wheat: Rabi crops (sown in winter).
• Gram: Rabi crop.
• Sugarcane: A Kharif crop that grows for a long duration and depends on rainfall.

96. In plants, xylem is responsible for which of the following functions?
(A) Transport of food
(B) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
(C) Transport of oxygen and other gases
(D) Transport of essential amino acids
Correct Answer: (B) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
Explanation:
Xylem is a conducting tissue that transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves and other parts of the plant.
• Phloem transports food (glucose).
• Xylem plays the primary role in the upward movement of water and minerals.
• It also contributes to the rigidity and structural support of plants.

97. In plant classification, who was the first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues?
(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bentham and Hooker
(C) A.P. de Candolle
(D) More than one of the above
Correct Answer: (C) A.P. de Candolle
Explanation:
A.P. de Candolle was the first to systematically apply the presence and organization of vascular tissues in plant classification. He categorized plants based on their vascular (xylem and phloem) and non-vascular structures. This approach later played an important role in the development of modern systems such as those by Bentham and Hooker. Vascular tissues like xylem and phloem are responsible for the transport of water and nutrients in plants, and their presence was considered decisive in classification.

98. The part of the mango that we eat is –
(A) Exocarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Endocarp
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Mesocarp
Explanation:
We eat the mesocarp part of the mango.
• The fruit has three main parts:

• Exocarp: peel
• Mesocarp: pulp, edible part
• Endocarp: hard seed coat
  • The sweet and juicy part of mango is the mesocarp, which is the main source of nutrition and energy.

99. When is Ozone Day celebrated?
(A) 5 June
(B) 16 September
(C) 21 April
(D) 5 December
Correct Answer: (B) 16 September
Explanation:
Ozone Day, also known as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, is celebrated every year on 16 September. This day commemorates the success of the 1987 Montreal Protocol and raises awareness about the protection of the ozone layer. The ozone layer protects the Earth from harmful ultraviolet rays.

100. In a mycorrhizal relationship, the benefit to the plant is –
(A) Protection
(B) Food
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Increased mineral absorption and protection from diseases
Correct Answer: (D) Increased mineral absorption and protection from diseases
Explanation:
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between plants and fungi. Through this relationship, fungi attach to plant roots, enhancing the absorption of minerals and water while also protecting plants from pathogens and harmful microorganisms. Additionally, this symbiosis improves plant growth and overall health.

101. Which Commission provoked unrest because it did not include any Indian member from political groups and parties?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Welby Commission
(C) Simon Commission
(D) Cabinet Mission
Correct Answer: (C) Simon Commission
Explanation:
The Simon Commission was appointed by the British Government in 1927 to recommend constitutional reforms in India. It did not include any Indian member, which caused resentment and opposition among all political parties and groups. The Indian National Congress and other organizations boycotted it, calling it the “Black Commission.” This discontent became a major factor in intensifying the freedom movement.
• Protests, rallies, and publications were organized across India against the Commission.
• Several leaders, including Raj Kumar Shukla and Mahatma Gandhi, played an active role in opposing it.
• The opposition to the Simon Commission marked a turning point in strengthening the demand for swaraj (self-rule) and constitutional rights in India.

102. Who took over the leadership of the Indian National Army (INA) and gave the famous slogan ‘Chalo Delhi’?
(A) Mohan Singh
(B) Rash Behari Bose
(C) Shah Nawaz Khan
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: (D) Subhas Chandra Bose
Explanation:
Subhas Chandra Bose assumed leadership of the INA in 1943. He actively planned military campaigns against the British to secure India’s freedom and gave the famous slogan “Chalo Delhi” (Onward to Delhi).
• The INA was formed with Japanese support.
• Under its command, Indian soldiers launched campaigns against British forces in Assam, Manipur, and Myanmar.
• The slogan instilled courage and determination in Indian soldiers.
• Bose’s leadership brought new energy and an aggressive strategy to India’s freedom struggle.

103. “We shall either free India or die in the attempt…” Who said this?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) V. D. Savarkar
Correct Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi said this on 8 August 1942 while launching the Quit India Movement. During this movement, he gave the slogan “Do or Die,” which meant that Indians should either free their country from British rule or sacrifice their lives in the struggle. This slogan became a symbol of inspiration and courage for the Indian people in their fight for freedom. Gandhi urged Indians to rise unitedly against British rule and achieve independence through this call.

104. Who raised the slogan “Divide and Quit”?
(A) M. A. Jinnah
(B) M. A. Ansari
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Mohammad Iqbal
Correct Answer: (A) M. A. Jinnah
Explanation:
The slogan “Divide and Quit” was popularized by M. A. Jinnah in the 1940s during the Indian freedom struggle, in the context of demanding a separate Muslim nation.
• Through this slogan, he clearly advocated for a separate country for India’s Muslims, which ultimately became Pakistan.
• This slogan strengthened the idea of political division in India and became a symbol of the separatist movement led by the Muslim League.

105. Which Act formally created the two new independent states of India and Pakistan?
(A) Government of India Act, 1919
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Explanation:
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 was passed by the British Parliament.
• Under this Act, India and Pakistan were granted the status of independent dominions, and on 15 August 1947, India and Pakistan emerged as separate sovereign states.
• The Act legally ended British rule in India and established the framework for the creation of two nations.
• It also formalized the partition process between the Indus and Ganges regions, including the division of Punjab and Bengal, and facilitated the transfer of royal authority.

106. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 to strengthen the activities of the Home Rule League?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) M. A. Ansari
Correct Answer: (A) Annie Besant
Explanation:
In 1918, Annie Besant visited Bihar to promote and strengthen the activities of the Home Rule League.
• The objective of the Home Rule League was to increase political awareness and promote self-governance in India.
• Besant collaborated with Congress leaders and local leaders to enhance political education and participation.
• Her visit was significant for encouraging women’s involvement and active participation in the Indian national movement.

107. The Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed as a result of an agreement between whom?
(A) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Indian Government and Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
(D) Indian Government and Anugrah Narayan Singh
Correct Answer: (B) Indian Government and Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation:
The Champaran Agrarian Committee was established through an agreement between the Indian Government and Mahatma Gandhi.
• In 1917, Gandhi raised the issue of farmers in Champaran (Bihar) who were forced to grow indigo under oppressive conditions by landlords.
• The Committee investigated the complaints and made recommendations to end exploitation in indigo cultivation.
• This became the first significant application of Satyagraha in India and successfully safeguarded farmers’ rights.

108. Who was the prominent leader of the Bihar Kisan Sabha?
(A) Sahajanand Saraswati
(B) Raj Kumar Shukla
(C) Acharya Narendra Dev
(D) Baba Ramchandra
Correct Answer: (A) Sahajanand Saraswati
Explanation:
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the prominent leader of the Bihar Kisan Sabha.
• In 1929, he founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) to protect farmers from the exploitation of landlords.
• Under his leadership, the farmer movement in Bihar strengthened, eventually forming the foundation for the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936.
Other options:
• Raj Kumar Shukla: Invited Gandhi to Champaran Satyagraha but was not the leader of Bihar Kisan Sabha.
• Acharya Narendra Dev: Socialist leader and early member of All India Kisan Sabha, not primarily a leader of Bihar Kisan Sabha.
• Baba Ramchandra: Leader in the 1920s farmer movements in Awadh (UP), not active in Bihar.

109. Who was killed while hoisting the national flag in the Bikram police station area?
(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhri
(B) Ram Narayan of Bikrampur
(C) Satyendra of Gorakhri
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhri
Explanation:
During the Indian freedom struggle in the Bikram area, Raghunath Singh was martyred while attempting to hoist the national flag.
• This incident symbolizes the courage and sacrifice of local farmers and freedom fighters in Bihar.
• Raghunath Singh’s bravery inspired the local population to resist British rule.
• Ram Narayan of Bikrampur and Satyendra of Gorakhri were also freedom fighters, but they were not involved in this specific incident.

110. Who became the Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
(A) Anugrah Narayan Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishna Singh
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Shri Krishna Singh
Explanation:
After the 1937 provincial elections, Congress secured a majority in Bihar.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad played a key role in forming the Congress ministry but did not take the position of Chief Minister himself.
• On his recommendation, Shri Krishna Singh (commonly known as “Sri Babu”) became the first Chief Minister of Bihar.
• He served continuously from 1937 to 1961 and laid the foundation for the state’s socio-economic development.
• In March 1939, when Congress ministries resigned against British policies, Shri Krishna Singh still held the position.
• Anugrah Narayan Singh was the Deputy Chief Minister and Finance Minister at the time.

111. Match the following: Ancient Indian Sites (List-I) with Present-Day States (List-II)

List-I (Ancient Sites)
a) Karnasuvarna
b) Pragjyotish
c) Girnar
d) Pratishthan

List-II (Present States)

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. West Bengal
4. Assam

Choose the correct match:
(A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Correct Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Explanation:
• Karnasuvarna was the capital of ancient Bengal, located in present-day West Bengal (Murshidabad).
• Pragjyotish was the capital of ancient Kamrup, corresponding to present-day Assam (Guwahati region).
• Girnar is a significant historical and religious site in present-day Gujarat (Junagadh).
• Pratishthan (Paithan) was the capital of the Satavahanas, now near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.

112. Which of the following does NOT belong to the Rigvedic period?
(A) Gargi
(B) Ghosha
(C) Apala
(D) Vishvara

Correct Answer: (A) Gargi
Explanation:
• The Rigvedic period (c. 1500–1000 BCE) is the early phase of the Vedic age. Scholars like Ghosha, Apala, and Vishvara belonged to this period and composed parts of the Rigveda.
• Gargi was a scholar of the later Upanishadic (Post-Rigvedic) period. She is mentioned in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad debating with Yajnavalkya.
• Therefore, Gargi does not directly belong to the Rigvedic period.

113. Match the following: Event/Place (List-I) with Related Person (List-II)

List-I (Event / Place)
a) Chola Gangam Lake
b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra
c) Assembly at Prayag
d) Sudarshan Lake

List-II (Related Person)

1. Chandragupta Maurya
2. Harshavardhan
3. Rajendra I
4. Ashoka

Choose the correct match:
(A) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(C) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(D) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

Correct Answer: (B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Explanation:
• Chola Gangam Lake – Related to Rajendra I of the Chola dynasty in South India, a key water reservoir and trade hub.
• Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra – Initiated by Emperor Ashoka to monitor adherence to Dharma and administration.
• Assembly at Prayag – Conducted by Emperor Harshavardhan, attended by representatives of various states and rulers.
• Sudarshan Lake – Constructed during the reign of Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.

114. Which of the following rulers had the longest reign?
(A) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Balban

Correct Answer: (C) Bahlol Lodi
Explanation:
• Bahlol Lodi ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1489, a period of approximately 38 years, the longest among the given rulers.
• Muhammad bin Tughlaq: 1325–1351, about 26 years.
• Alauddin Khilji: 1296–1316, about 20 years.
• Balban: 1266–1287, about 21 years.
• Bahlol Lodi’s long reign not only stabilized the Sultanate but also laid the foundation of the Lodi dynasty in Delhi.

115. Consider the following ancient Indian dynasties:

1. Shunga
2. Maurya
3. Kushan
4. Kanva

What is the correct chronological order of their rule?
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 2-1-4-3
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 2-1-3-4

Correct Answer: (B) 2-1-4-3
Explanation:
• Maurya Dynasty: 321–185 BCE, famous during Chandragupta Maurya and Ashoka.
• Shunga Dynasty: 185–73 BCE, after the decline of the Mauryas.
• Kanva Dynasty: 73–26 BCE, succeeded the Shungas.
• Kushan Dynasty: c. 30–375 CE, prominent in North India and Afghanistan.

116. Which of the following works was NOT written by Tulsidas?
(A) Vinay Patrika
(B) Gitavali
(C) Sahitya Lahari
(D) Kavitavali

Correct Answer: (C) Sahitya Lahari
Explanation:
• Sahitya Lahari is a famous work by Surdas, focusing on poetry, alankar, and Nayika-bheda.
• Vinay Patrika, Gitavali, and Kavitavali are major works of Goswami Tulsidas.

• Vinay Patrika: Devotional poems addressed to Lord Rama expressing humility and devotion.
• Gitavali: Collection of songs related to Lord Rama.
• Kavitavali: Verses narrating the Ramayana in different poetic meters.

117. Match the following buildings with their builders:

List-I (Building)	List-II (Builder)
a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque	1) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra	2) Nur Jahan
c) Allahabad Fort	3) Akbar
d) Etmad-ud-Daula’s Tomb	4) Babur

Correct Answer: (B) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

Explanation:
• Kabuli Bagh Mosque – built by Babur in Ahmedabad.
• Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra – constructed by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in Delhi.
• Allahabad Fort – built by Akbar in Allahabad (Prayagraj).
• Etmad-ud-Daula’s Tomb – commissioned by Nur Jahan in Agra; a fine example of Mughal architecture.

118. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Dayanand Saraswati – Satyarth Prakash
(B) James Augustus Hicky – Calcutta Chronicle
(C) Ramaswami Naicker – Justice Party
(D) Jyotirao Phule – Satyashodhak Samaj

• Correct Answer: (B) James Augustus Hicky – Calcutta Chronicle
• Explanation:
  • Dayanand Saraswati – Satyarth Prakash: Correct. He wrote this important work advocating social and religious reform.
  • James Augustus Hicky – Hicky’s Bengal Gazette: Correct newspaper; he did not publish Calcutta Chronicle, so this match is wrong.
  • Ramaswami Naicker – Justice Party: Correct. He founded the Justice Party for social reform in South India.
  • Jyotirao Phule – Satyashodhak Samaj: Correct. He founded this society to fight caste discrimination and social injustice.

119. Match the following fathers with their sons:

List-I (Father)	List-II (Son)
a) Babur	1) Salim
b) Akbar	2) Khusrau
c) Shah Jahan	3) Kamran
d) Jahangir	4) Murad

Correct Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Explanation:
• Babur – Kamran (a-3): Kamran was one of Babur’s sons.
• Akbar – Murad (b-4): Murad was Akbar’s son.
• Shah Jahan – Salim (c-1): Salim, later known as Jahangir, was Shah Jahan’s son.
• Jahangir – Khusrau (d-2): Khusrau was Jahangir’s son, involved in succession struggles.

120. Which Buddhist council was NOT held in Bihar?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

• Correct Answer: (D) Fourth
• Explanation:
  • Bihar hosted only the First, Second, and Third Buddhist Councils.
  • First Council: 483 BCE, after Buddha’s death, under King Ajatashatru in Rajgir.
  • Second Council: 383 BCE, under King Kalashoka in Vaishali.
  • Third Council: 250 BCE, under Emperor Ashoka in Pataliputra (modern Patna).
  • Fourth Council: Not held in Bihar; it took place in Kundalvan (Kashmir) under Kushan King Kanishka. It was significant for the expansion of Buddhism and codifying rules.

121. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?

1. He was elected president of the Indian National Congress at the Tripuri session in 1938.
2. In January 1941, he escaped from British imprisonment.
3. On 21 October 1943, he established the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore.

(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) Only 2 and 3

Explanation:
• The Tripuri session actually took place in 1939, not 1938, so statement 1 is incorrect.
• In January 1941, Bose escaped from British imprisonment and continued the independence struggle from abroad.
• On 21 October 1943, he formed the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore and led military campaigns against the British through the Indian National Army (INA).

122. Who among the following was NOT a teacher at Nalanda University?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Nagarjuna
(C) Shilabhadra
(D) Shantirakshit

Correct Answer: (A) Kautilya

Explanation:
• Nalanda University was a prominent center of learning in ancient India, especially for Buddhism, philosophy, mathematics, logic, and science.
• Nagarjuna – Renowned Buddhist philosopher of the Madhyamaka school.
• Shilabhadra – Chief teacher and eminent scholar at Nalanda.
• Shantirakshit – Famous Buddhist teacher and scholar.
• Kautilya (Chanakya) – Author of Arthashastra and Prime Minister of the Mauryan Empire; he had no connection with Nalanda University.

123. Arrange the following events of modern Indian history in chronological order:

1. Execution of Raja Nand Kumar
2. Salbai Treaty
3. Battle of Wandiwash
4. Death of Tipu Sultan

(A) 3-1-2-4
(B) 2-3-4-1
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 3-2-1-4

Correct Answer: (A) 3-1-2-4

Explanation:
• Battle of Wandiwash (3) – 1760, a major Anglo-French conflict in India.
• Execution of Raja Nand Kumar (1) – 1775, due to his opposition to British rule in Bengal.
• Salbai Treaty (2) – 1782, between the Marathas and Hyderabad.
• Death of Tipu Sultan (4) – 1799, during the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War.

124. Which of the following newspapers in Bihar was published first?
(A) Patna Harkara
(B) Bihar Bandhu
(C) Akhbar-e-Bihar
(D) Bihar Herald

Correct Answer: (A) Patna Harkara

Explanation:
• Patna Harkara

• Published: 21 April 1855
• Language: Urdu
• Publisher: Sah Abu Torab
• Location: Khaja Kalan area, Patna
• Significance: First newspaper in Bihar, published before Bihar Bandhu.

• Bihar Bandhu

• Published: 1872
• Language: Hindi
• Significance: First Hindi newspaper in Bihar.

• Akhbar-e-Bihar

• Published: 3 September 1856
• Language: Urdu
• Publisher: William Taylor, Commissioner of Patna

• Bihar Herald

• Published: 1875
• Language: English
• Significance: First English weekly in Bihar.

125. Match the following:

List-I (Event / Organization)	List-II (Related Person)
a) Champaran Satyagraha	1) Jayaprakash Narayan
b) Azad Dasta	2) Shyam Narayan Singh
c) 1940 Individual Satyagraha in Bihar	3) Sahajanand Saraswati
d) Peasant Sabha, Bihar	4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Options:
(A) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(B) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
(C) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

Correct Answer: (D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

Explanation:

• Champaran Satyagraha – Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4): Actively participated in Gandhi-led Champaran Satyagraha in 1917.
• Azad Dasta – Jayaprakash Narayan (1): Formed the “Azad Dasta” in Nepal during the Quit India Movement.
• 1940 Individual Satyagraha in Bihar – Shyam Narayan Singh (2): Participated in the individual satyagraha movement.
• Peasant Sabha, Bihar – Sahajanand Saraswati (3): Founded Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929 to fight for farmers’ rights.

126. Select the odd one out:
(A) Telescope
(B) Microscope
(C) Stethoscope
(D) Periscope

Correct Answer: (C) Stethoscope

Explanation:

• Telescope, Microscope, and Periscope are optical instruments used for viewing.
  • Telescope: To see distant objects.
  • Microscope: To see tiny objects.
  • Periscope: To see over obstacles or from a hidden position.
• Stethoscope: Used to listen to internal sounds like heartbeats and lungs.
• Hence, Stethoscope is different from the other three.

127. In a code, SPRING is written as UNUFRC. How will MOBILE be written in the same code?
(A) OMPGNC
(B) OMEFPA
(C) MPQSUL
(D) SEGRFT

Correct Answer: (B) OMEFPA

Explanation:
The pattern for SPRING → UNUFRC:

• S → U (+2), P → N (-2), R → U (+3), I → F (-3), N → R (+4), G → C (-4)

Applying the same to MOBILE:

• M + 2 = O
• O – 2 = M
• B + 3 = E
• I – 3 = F
• L + 4 = P
• E – 4 = A

Thus, MOBILE → OMEFPA

128. Mukesh said to his friend: “Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter.” What is Mukesh’s relation with Rita?
(A) Son-in-law
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Father-in-law

Correct Answer: (D) Father-in-law

Explanation:

• Mukesh has a son.
• Son has a wife.
• The wife has a daughter.
• Rita is the mother of that daughter.

Thus, Rita is Mukesh’s daughter-in-law, making Mukesh her father-in-law.

129. Ram starts walking north, then turns right, then again turns right, and finally turns left. In which direction is Ram now?
(A) South
(B) East
(C) North
(D) West

Correct Answer: (B) East

Explanation:

• Ram starts walking north.
• First right turn → East
• Second right turn → South
• Final left turn → East

Thus, Ram is facing East.

130. Arranging the following names in alphabetical order, which name will come last?
(A) Mohinder
(B) Mahinder
(C) Mohender
(D) Mahendra

Correct Answer: (A) Mohinder

Explanation:
Alphabetical order comparison:

1. Mahendra → M-a-h-e-n-d-r-a
2. Mahinder → M-a-h-i-n-d-e-r
3. Mohender → M-o-h-e-n-d-e-r
4. Mohinder → M-o-h-i-n-d-e-r

• First letter “M” is the same for all. Next, “a” comes before “o”.
• So Mahendra and Mahinder come first.
• Then Mohender and Mohinder, as “o” comes after “a”.
• Between Mohender and Mohinder, “h-i” > “h-e”, so Mohinder comes last.

131. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39 students. If Joginder’s rank from the last is 17th, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?
(A) 15th
(B) 17th
(C) 18th
(D) 16th

Correct Answer: (D) 16th

Explanation:

• Total students = 39
• Joginder’s rank from the last = 17 → Rank from the beginning = 39 − 17 + 1 = 23
• Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder → Nitin’s rank = 23 − 7 = 16

132. If + means ×, × means –, ÷ means +, and – means ÷, then what is the value of:
175 – 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10?

(A) 87
(B) 77
(C) 140
(D) 70

Correct Answer: (B) 77

133. Rahul’s age is 3 times that of Seema. Four years ago, Laxmi’s age was double that of Rahul. Four years later, Rahul will be 31 years old. What are Seema’s and Laxmi’s current ages?

(A) 9, 52
(B) 10, 50
(C) 9, 45
(D) 9, 50

Correct Answer: (D) 9, 50

Explanation:

• Four years later Rahul = 31 → Current Rahul = 31 – 4 = 27
• Rahul = 3 × Seema → Seema = 27 ÷ 3 = 9
• Four years ago, Rahul = 23 → Laxmi = 23 × 2 = 46
• Current Laxmi = 46 + 4 = 50

Seema and Laxmi’s current ages = 9 and 50.

134. Find the missing number in the following pattern:

28	20	7
84	?	12
45	25	9

(A) 35
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 25

Correct Answer: (A) 35

Explanation:
Pattern: Middle number = (First number ÷ Third number) × 5

• First row: (28 ÷ 7) × 5 = 4 × 5 = 20
• Second row: (84 ÷ 12) × 5 = 7 × 5 = 35
• Third row: (45 ÷ 9) × 5 = 5 × 5 = 25

135. In a certain code language, RAIN is written as 8$%6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be written in the same code?

(A) %7@%6#
(B) @$86%7
(C) 86@$#7
(D) 8@7$%6

Correct Answer: (D) 8@7$%6

Explanation:
Let’s understand the coding pattern:

• RAIN = 8 $ % 6
  • R → 8
  • A → $
  • I → %
  • N → 6
• MORE = 7 # 8 @
  • M → 7
  • O → #
  • R → 8
  • E → @

Now, REMAIN = R E M A I N

• R → 8
• E → @
• M → 7
• A → $
• I → %
• N → 6

Thus, REMAIN = 8@7$%6

136. How many bronze medals did Bihar athletes win in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) 5

Explanation:

• The 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2023 was held among young athletes from various states of India.
• Bihar’s team won a total of 12 medals:
  • Gold: 1
  • Silver: 6
  • Bronze: 5
• Note: The question mentions 2025, but the actual 38th edition occurred in 2023. The upcoming 40th edition will be held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, from 10–14 October 2025.

137. Which districts of Bihar will benefit from the Kosi–Mechi Link Project?

(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnia, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Araria, Purnia, Kishanganj, Katihar

Explanation:

• The Kosi–Mechi interlinking project will benefit four districts of Bihar:
  • Araria
  • Purnia
  • Kishanganj
  • Katihar
• The project aims to divert excess water from the Kosi River to the Mechi River, improving irrigation and reducing flood-related problems in these districts.

138. Which of the following Indian languages have been granted the status of Classical Language?

(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
India has recognized several languages as Classical Languages, based on their rich and ancient literary tradition:

• Tamil – since 500–300 BCE
• Sanskrit – from 1st century BCE
• Kannada – from 370 CE
• Telugu – from 400 CE
• Malayalam – from 830 CE
• Odia – from 1051 CE
• Others like Bengali, Marathi, Assamese, Pali, and Prakrit also have ancient literary history.

139. Which organization has recognized Nagi Bird Sanctuary as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?

(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) BirdLife International
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) BirdLife International

Explanation:

• Nagi Bird Sanctuary, located in Jamui district of Bihar, has been recognized by BirdLife International as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA).
• BirdLife International is a global organization dedicated to the conservation of birds and their habitats.
• The IBA designation is given to sites that are critical for bird species diversity and ecological significance.

140. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 celebrated?

(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Madhubani

Explanation:

• National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated every year on 24 April, marking the implementation of the Panchayati Raj system under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in 1993.
• In 2025, the main celebration was held in Lohna Uttar Gram Panchayat, Jhanjharpur Block, Madhubani district, Bihar.
• Panchayat representatives were honored for innovations and outstanding work.
• The Ministry of Panchayati Raj also organized programs on digital governance, e-Gram Swaraj portal, and rural development schemes.
• The event aimed to strengthen democratic participation at the grassroots level and highlight the role of Panchayats.

141. What is the main objective of the Lunar Trailblazer Mission?

(A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface

Explanation:

• Lunar Trailblazer is a small satellite mission jointly by NASA and Caltech.
• Its main objective is to study the amount, form (ice or bound water), and location of water or hydroxyl on the Moon.
• The mission uses high-resolution spectrometers and infrared imaging instruments to analyze lunar surface temperature and mineral composition.
• It supports the Artemis program by providing data for future human missions and in-situ resource utilization (ISRU).
• The information will help assess the feasibility of sustainable lunar habitation and resource use.

142. The term ‘Afrikaners’ refers to which group of people?

(A) Indo-African people in America
(B) Indigenous tribal communities of Africa
(C) White minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) White minority group in South Africa

Explanation:

• Afrikaners are white people of European descent in South Africa, primarily originating from Dutch, German, and French Huguenot settlers.
• They speak the Afrikaans language, which developed from Dutch.
• Historically, they played a significant role in the Boer Wars and the political-social structure of South Africa.
• In modern South Africa, Afrikaners have contributed significantly to agriculture, politics, and culture.

143. Which 16th-century stepwell (bawdi) has recently been conserved by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in collaboration with World Monuments Fund India?

(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Bawdi
(C) Chauki Bawdi
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Rajon ki Bawdi

Explanation:

• Rajon ki Bawdi is a famous 16th-century stepwell located in the Mehrauli Archaeological Park, Delhi.
• Built during the Lodi period around 1506 CE, it features four levels and several arched corridors used for cooling during summers.
• ASI, in collaboration with World Monuments Fund India and TCS Foundation, has recently restored and conserved it.
• The stepwell is an important example of historical water management systems in Delhi.

144. Who is the Mayor of New York City who declared 14 April 2025 as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day?

(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Eric Adams

Explanation:

• On 14 April 2025, New York City Mayor Eric Adams declared it “Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day” in honor of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar’s birth anniversary.
• The declaration recognized Dr. Ambedkar’s contributions to social justice, equality, and human rights.
• Dr. Ambedkar was the chief architect of the Indian Constitution and a strong advocate for the rights of Dalits and marginalized communities.
• This recognition highlights the global respect for his ideas and struggles, and holds significance for the Indian diaspora and social justice movements in cities like New York.

145. What is the official slogan of the Eurovision Song Contest?

(A) Music Unites Us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United By Music
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) United By Music

Explanation:

• In November 2023, Eurovision announced that “United By Music” would be its permanent slogan from 2024 onward.
• Previously, each year featured a different theme or slogan.
• The slogan emphasizes the power of music and unity among nations.

146. Which of the following statements about ISRO’s GSLV-F15 mission is correct?

(A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B) It was ISRO’s 101st launch from Sriharikota
(C) It was ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:

• The GSLV-F15 mission carried the NVS-02 navigation satellite.
• It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota.
• This was also the 17th flight in the GSLV series.
• The mission’s purpose was to strengthen India’s navigation system (NavIC).

147. Which statement about the 18th G20 Summit is correct?

(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro.
(B) Its theme was: “Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet”
(C) The Rio declaration emphasized taxing billionaires
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation:

• The 18th G20 Summit was indeed held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
• Its official theme was “Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet”.
• However, the declaration did not prominently emphasize taxing billionaires.
• The summit, held under Brazil’s presidency, focused on climate change, global economy, and sustainable development.
• Ideally, the correct answer should include both A and B, but since “More than one of the above” was not provided, the closest correct choice given is D – None of the above.

148. At the United Nations Climate Conference held in Baku in 2024, which agreement was reached?

(A) Global ban on fossil fuels by 2030
(B) Appeal to developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing countries by 2030
(C) Appeal to developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing countries by 2035
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Appeal to developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing countries by 2035

Explanation:

• At COP29 in Baku, Azerbaijan (2024), it was agreed that developed countries would provide developing countries at least $300 billion annually by 2035.
• This funding is intended to help developing countries meet climate targets, address losses from past policies, and tackle climate change challenges.
• The target is part of the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) framework.

149. Which other prestigious award did Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian’ receive before she won the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature?

(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) PEN America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (C) International Booker Prize

Explanation:

• Han Kang received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024.
• Her novel The Vegetarian (including translations) won the International Booker Prize in 2016, becoming the first translated book to win.
• Additionally, the novel won the Yi Sang Literary Prize, but among the options provided, only the International Booker Prize is correct.

150. Which glacier in Nepal was declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?

(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Yala Glacier

Explanation:

• The Yala Glacier, located in the Langtang Valley, Nepal, was declared “dead” in May 2025.
• Since the 1970–80s, it has shrunk by approximately 66% and retreated nearly 784 meters.
• A glacier is called “dead” when it no longer exhibits flow or movement, meaning it cannot naturally move or replenish itself.

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71st BPSC Answer Key 2025 With Explanation in English PDF