Table of Contents
Bihar Daroga 21 January 2026 (1st Shift) Qn in English
Question: When was the first dry port and Inland Container Depot (ICD) of Bihar inaugurated?
(a) 21 October 2024
(b) 20 November 2024
(c) 21 November 2024
(d) 20 September 2025
Answer: a
Solution: In order to promote economic development and strengthen international trade in the state, Bihar’s first Dry Port and Inland Container Depot (ICD) was established and inaugurated on 21 October 2024. A dry port is an inland facility that functions like a seaport for the handling of cargo containers. Although it is located away from the actual seaport, it is connected to major seaports through railways and road networks, enabling the movement of imported and exported goods. The establishment of this dry port is expected to provide significant benefits to industries, traders, and exporters in Bihar. Earlier, businesses in the state had to depend heavily on distant seaports such as those in Kolkata or other coastal regions, which increased both time and transportation costs. With the establishment of the Inland Container Depot, logistics operations will become faster and more efficient. It will help reduce transportation expenses, improve trade efficiency, and boost regional economic growth. Agricultural products, industrial goods, and other commodities from Bihar can now be transported more easily to international markets. Therefore, the inauguration of Bihar’s first dry port and ICD on 21 October 2024 is considered an important step toward strengthening the state’s trade infrastructure and export potential.
Question: By which other name is the Saryu River also known?
(a) Son
(b) Kosi
(c) Kali
(d) Ghaghara
Answer: d
Solution: The Saryu River is an important river of North India, which flows particularly through the Ayodhya region of Uttar Pradesh and is considered extremely sacred from a religious perspective. Ancient texts such as the Ramayana mention the Saryu River prominently, as the birthplace of Lord Rama, Ayodhya, is located on its banks. From a geographical perspective, the Saryu River is also known as the Ghaghara River. This river originates in the Himalayan region of Tibet and enters India after flowing through Nepal. In India, it flows through Uttar Pradesh and Bihar and eventually merges with the Ganga River. The Ghaghara River is an important tributary of the Ganga and has a large water discharge. In religious literature it is often referred to as Saryu, while in geographical and modern contexts it is known as the Ghaghara River. Therefore, among the given options, Ghaghara is another name for the Saryu River.
Question: Which of the following travelers gave a detailed description of coconut and betel?
(a) Francis Bernier
(b) Abdul Razzaq
(c) Al-Biruni Samarqandi
(d) Ibn Battuta
Answer: d
Solution: Ibn Battuta was a famous Arab traveler from Morocco who traveled to many countries of the world during the 14th century. He came to India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq and served for some time as a Qazi (judge) in the Delhi Sultanate. Ibn Battuta wrote his travel account in a book called Rihla, in which he described the social, economic, and cultural conditions of India in detail. During his travels he mentioned several features of Indian life, among which his description of coconut and betel was particularly significant. He described the coconut tree, its fruit, and its uses in detail, noting that the fruit resembles a human head. Similarly, he gave a detailed account of the Indian custom of consuming betel (betel leaf) and explained that Indians place great importance on it in their social and cultural life. Therefore, the correct answer is Ibn Battuta.
Question: Who among the following built the famous Rajarajeshwara Temple of Tanjore?
(a) Rajendra I
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Kulottunga Chola
(d) Rajendra II
Answer: b
Solution: The Rajarajeshwara Temple, also known today as the Brihadeeswara Temple, is a grand and historic temple located in Thanjavur (Tanjore) in the state of Tamil Nadu, South India. This temple was built by the great Chola ruler Rajaraja I around 1010 CE. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is considered an outstanding example of the Dravidian style of architecture of South India. The temple’s massive vimana (tower) rises to a height of more than 60 meters, making it one of the tallest temple structures of its time. The temple was primarily constructed using granite stones, even though such stones were not naturally available near Thanjavur, indicating the use of advanced techniques and a large workforce in its construction. This temple is a remarkable example of Chola-period architecture, sculpture, and religious tradition. Due to its historical and cultural significance, it has been included in the UNESCO World Heritage list. Therefore, the correct answer is Rajaraja I.
Question: Who among the following is known as Frontier Gandhi or Seemant Gandhi?
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Bhagat Singh
Answer: c
Solution: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan is known as Frontier Gandhi or Seemant Gandhi. He was born in 1890 in the North-West Frontier Province (present-day Khyber Pakhtunkhwa in Pakistan). He was a prominent leader of the Indian freedom movement and a great social reformer. He received this title because, like Mahatma Gandhi, he strongly supported the principles of non-violence and satyagraha. He worked extensively for social reform and the spread of education among the Pashtun society. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan founded the Khudai Khidmatgar movement, also known as the “Red Shirt Movement.” The objective of this movement was to oppose British rule through non-violent means and to promote unity, education, and social reform in society. He actively participated in the freedom struggle along with the Indian National Congress and was imprisoned several times. His life stands as an excellent example of dedication to non-violence, social service, and the struggle for independence, which is why he is called Frontier Gandhi.
Question: How many goals have been adopted by the United Nations for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
Answer: b
Solution: The United Nations officially adopted the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in 2015. These goals are part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which aims to eliminate poverty, protect the environment, and ensure prosperity and equal opportunities for all people around the world. The United Nations General Assembly adopted a total of 17 Sustainable Development Goals. These goals focus on several important global issues such as ending poverty, eliminating hunger, providing quality education, achieving gender equality, ensuring clean water and sanitation, promoting affordable and clean energy, supporting economic growth, encouraging industry and innovation, reducing inequalities, building sustainable cities, combating climate change, and strengthening global partnerships. The main objective of these goals is to establish a balance between social, economic, and environmental development so that natural resources can be preserved for future generations. Therefore, the United Nations adopted a total of 17 Sustainable Development Goals.
Question: What is the full form of SEZ?
(a) Special Environment Zone
(b) Special Economic Zone
(c) Social Economic Zone
(d) Service Economic Zone
Answer: b
Solution: The full form of SEZ is Special Economic Zone. It refers to a designated area within a country where special economic regulations and policies are implemented to promote trade, investment, and industrial development. In these zones, companies are provided with several incentives such as tax exemptions, simplified regulations, better infrastructure, and export-oriented policies. In India, the concept of Special Economic Zones was implemented through the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, which came into effect in 2006. The main objectives of SEZs are to increase exports, attract foreign direct investment (FDI), generate employment opportunities, and promote industrial growth. These zones provide world-class infrastructure and facilities to industries so that they can compete effectively in the global market. In India, several SEZs have been established in places such as Noida, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad, and Gujarat. Thus, the correct full form of SEZ is Special Economic Zone.
Question: Arrange the following Presidents of India in the correct chronological order according to their tenure –
(a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(b) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(c) Giani Zail Singh
(d) R. Venkataraman
(e) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Codes:
(a) a, e, d, c, b
(b) a, e, c, d, b
(c) a, d, e, c, b
(d) a, b, c, d, e
Answer: b
Solution: In India, the President is the constitutional head of the country and is elected by an Electoral College. The question asks to arrange the given Presidents according to the chronological order of their tenure. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed first served as the President of India from 1974 to 1977. After his tenure, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy became the President and served from 1977 to 1982. He was followed by Giani Zail Singh, who served as the President from 1982 to 1987. After him, R. Venkataraman held the office of President from 1987 to 1992. Subsequently, Shankar Dayal Sharma became the President and served from 1992 to 1997. Therefore, the correct chronological order is Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed → Neelam Sanjiva Reddy → Giani Zail Singh → R. Venkataraman → Shankar Dayal Sharma. Hence, the correct code is (B) a, e, c, d, b.
Question: Which of the following commissions was constituted by the Government of India to review the relations between the Centre and the States?
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Srikrishna Commission
(c) Rajamannar Commission
(d) Kher Commission
Answer: a
Solution: India follows a federal system of governance in which powers are divided between the central government and the state governments. This distribution of powers is defined in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which includes the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Over time, the need was felt to review and improve the relationship between the Centre and the States. To address this issue, the Government of India constituted the Sarkaria Commission in 1983. The commission was headed by Justice R. S. Sarkaria. Its primary objective was to examine the balance of powers between the Centre and the States and to review administrative as well as financial relations between them. The Sarkaria Commission made several important recommendations to strengthen the federal structure and make Centre-State relations more effective and balanced. These recommendations included guidelines regarding the appointment of governors, limitations on the use of President’s Rule, strengthening the role of the Inter-State Council, and improving cooperative federalism. Thus, the commission formed to review Centre-State relations was the Sarkaria Commission.
Question: If a person is not a member of either House of Parliament but is appointed as the Prime Minister, what will be the status of his position?
(a) He can continue in the office without being a member.
(b) He must resign immediately after appointment.
(c) He must become a member of either House of Parliament within 6 months.
(d) None of these.
Answer: c
Solution: According to the Constitution of India, the Prime Minister is the head of the executive and is appointed by the President. Normally, the Prime Minister is a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. However, the Constitution also allows a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament to be appointed as the Prime Minister. This provision is mentioned under Article 75(5) of the Constitution. According to this article, if a person is appointed as a minister or Prime Minister and is not a member of Parliament at the time of appointment, he must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months. If he fails to obtain membership within this period, he must resign from the office. There have been examples in Indian politics where leaders were appointed and later obtained membership of Parliament, such as P. V. Narasimha Rao and Dr. Manmohan Singh. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) he must become a member of either House of Parliament within 6 months.
Question: In which language were the ancient Buddhist texts ‘Jataka Tales’ originally written?
(a) Prakrit
(b) Pali
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Apabhramsha
Answer: b
Solution: The Jataka Tales are an important part of Buddhist literature and contain stories about the previous births of Gautama Buddha. These stories describe how the Buddha, in his earlier lives, was born in different forms such as animals, kings, sages, and common people, and practiced virtues like compassion, generosity, wisdom, and moral conduct. The main purpose of these stories is to teach ethical values and moral lessons. The Jataka stories are originally written in the Pali language and form a part of the Khuddaka Nikaya of the Sutta Pitaka, which is included in the Tripitaka, the sacred canon of Theravada Buddhism. Pali was widely used during the time of the Buddha because it was a language that ordinary people could easily understand. For this reason, Buddhist teachings were recorded in Pali so that they could reach a larger audience. Later, the Jataka stories were translated into many other languages including Sanskrit and various regional languages. Therefore, the original language of the Jataka Tales is Pali.
Question: In plants, which of the following is most important in the process of translocation (transport of food)?
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Stomata
(d) Cortex
Answer: b
Solution: In plants, food is produced mainly in the leaves through the process of photosynthesis, where carbon dioxide and water are converted into glucose using the energy of sunlight. Once food is produced, it needs to be transported to different parts of the plant such as the roots, stems, flowers, fruits, and growing tissues. This movement of food from the leaves to other parts of the plant is known as translocation. The tissue responsible for this process is the phloem. Phloem is a type of vascular tissue that transports organic nutrients, especially sugars produced during photosynthesis, from the leaves to other parts of the plant where they are needed for growth, storage, or energy. In contrast, xylem is responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the upper parts of the plant. Stomata are tiny openings on the surface of leaves that help in gas exchange and transpiration, while the cortex mainly functions in storage and support within the plant stem or root. Therefore, the tissue that plays the most important role in the translocation of food in plants is phloem.
Question: On which date is National Consumer Rights Day celebrated every year in India?
(a) 24 December
(b) 31 October
(c) 26 January
(d) 15 March
Answer: a
Solution: National Consumer Rights Day is celebrated every year in India on 24 December. This day holds special significance because the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was enacted on 24 December 1986 in India. The main objective of this act was to protect the rights of consumers and safeguard them from unfair trade practices and exploitation in the marketplace. Through this legislation, consumers were provided with a legal platform to seek justice and file complaints against defective goods, deficient services, or unfair business practices. Under the provisions of this act, a three-tier consumer dispute redressal system was established consisting of District Consumer Commissions, State Consumer Commissions, and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC). These institutions provide a mechanism for resolving consumer grievances efficiently. The major rights granted to consumers include the right to safety, the right to information, the right to choose, the right to be heard, the right to seek redressal, and the right to consumer education. The primary objective of observing this day is to spread awareness among citizens about their consumer rights and responsibilities and to promote fair and ethical trade practices in the market. Therefore, National Consumer Rights Day is celebrated every year on 24 December in India.
Question: On which date is National Science Day celebrated every year in India?
(a) 12 January
(b) 28 February
(c) 15 August
(d) 14 November
Answer: b
Solution: National Science Day is celebrated every year in India on 28 February. This day commemorates the discovery of the Raman Effect by the great Indian scientist Dr. C. V. Raman. He discovered this phenomenon on 28 February 1928. For this groundbreaking discovery, he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930, making him the first Indian scientist to receive a Nobel Prize in the field of science. The Raman Effect explains that when light passes through a transparent substance, a small portion of the light changes its wavelength due to scattering. This discovery has immense significance in the field of physics and has contributed greatly to scientific research, particularly in spectroscopy and material analysis. Recognizing the importance of this scientific achievement, the Government of India declared 28 February as National Science Day in 1986. On this day, various activities such as science exhibitions, seminars, lectures, workshops, and science competitions are organized across schools, colleges, universities, and research institutions throughout the country. The main objective of celebrating this day is to encourage scientific temper, inspire young students toward science, and promote awareness about the importance of science and technology in national development.
Question: Modinagar city, which is known for its industrial and educational institutions, is located in which state of India?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Answer: c
Solution: Modinagar is an important industrial town located in the Ghaziabad district of Uttar Pradesh in India. The city is widely known for its industrial development as well as its educational institutions. Modinagar was founded by the renowned industrialist Gujarmal Modi, after whom the city was named. He established several industries in this region, including sugar mills, textile factories, rubber industries, and other manufacturing units. Due to these industries, Modinagar developed into one of the prominent industrial centers in Uttar Pradesh. In addition to industrial growth, the city is also known for its educational institutions, which contribute significantly to higher education in the region. One of the well-known institutions located here is the Dr. K. N. Modi Institute of Engineering and Technology, along with several other educational establishments. Modinagar is strategically located on the Delhi–Meerut road and falls within the National Capital Region (NCR), which further enhances its economic and educational importance. Thus, Modinagar is situated in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
Question: Which of the following is a non-volatile memory that retains data even when the computer is powered off?
(a) RAM
(b) ROM
(c) Cache
(d) Register
Answer: b
Solution: In a computer system, memory is broadly classified into two main types: volatile memory and non-volatile memory. Volatile memory loses its stored data when the power supply to the computer is turned off, whereas non-volatile memory retains its stored information even after the power is switched off. ROM (Read Only Memory) is a type of non-volatile memory. The data stored in ROM is permanent and generally cannot be modified by the user during normal operations. ROM contains essential instructions required for the basic functioning and startup of the computer system. These instructions are known as firmware, which help the computer perform the booting process when it is turned on and enable the operating system to load into memory. On the other hand, RAM (Random Access Memory), Cache memory, and Registers are examples of volatile memory because they lose their stored data once the power supply is interrupted. Therefore, the memory that retains data even when the computer is switched off is ROM.
Question: NDA stands for _____.
(a) National Disaster Act
(b) National Defence Academy
(c) North Defence Academy
(d) North Dynamic Academy
Answer: b
Solution: The full form of NDA is National Defence Academy. It is one of India’s most prestigious joint military training institutions where cadets of the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force receive their initial training together. The National Defence Academy is located in Khadakwasla near Pune in the state of Maharashtra. It was established in 1954 and is considered the first tri-service academy in the world where cadets from the three branches of the armed forces are trained together before moving on to their respective specialized training academies. At NDA, cadets receive comprehensive training that includes physical fitness, military tactics, leadership development, discipline, and academic education. Admission to the NDA is conducted through a highly competitive examination organized by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). After successfully completing their training at NDA, cadets proceed to their respective service academies for advanced training, such as the Indian Military Academy (IMA) for the Army, the Indian Naval Academy (INA) for the Navy, and the Air Force Academy (AFA) for the Air Force. Thus, NDA stands for National Defence Academy.
Question: By which year has the World Health Organization (WHO) set the target to eliminate measles and rubella from the South-East Asia region?
(a) 2030
(b) 2045
(c) 2050
(d) 2026
Answer: d
Solution: The World Health Organization (WHO) has set a target to eliminate infectious diseases such as measles and rubella from the South-East Asia Region. This region includes several countries such as India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Indonesia. These diseases can cause serious health complications, particularly among children. Measles is a highly contagious viral disease that spreads rapidly through respiratory droplets and can lead to complications such as pneumonia, brain inflammation, and even death in severe cases. Rubella, also known as German measles, is generally mild in children but can be extremely dangerous if a pregnant woman becomes infected, as it may lead to Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS) in newborns, causing birth defects such as hearing impairment, heart defects, and developmental problems. To eliminate these diseases, WHO has emphasized strengthening immunization programs, conducting large-scale vaccination campaigns, improving surveillance systems, and increasing public awareness. In India, the Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign has been implemented to protect children from these diseases. The WHO has therefore set the target year 2026 for eliminating measles and rubella from the South-East Asia region.
Question: Which compound is essential in the process of soap making (Saponification)?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ethanol
(c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) Ester
Answer: c
Solution: The process of making soap is known as saponification, which is an important chemical reaction in organic chemistry. In this process, fats or oils react with a strong alkali to produce soap and glycerol. Typically, sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or sometimes potassium hydroxide (KOH) is used as the alkali in this reaction. Fats and oils mainly consist of compounds called triglycerides. When these triglycerides react with sodium hydroxide, a hydrolysis reaction occurs that breaks them down into fatty acid salts and glycerol. The fatty acid salts produced in this reaction are what we commonly refer to as soap. Soap molecules have two important parts: a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail. This unique structure allows soap molecules to trap oil and dirt particles and wash them away with water, making them effective cleaning agents. Therefore, the compound essential for the saponification process is sodium hydroxide.
Question: Which element is a noble gas?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Fluorine
(c) Neon
(d) Nitrogen
Answer: c
Solution: Noble gases are elements that belong to Group 18 of the periodic table. These gases are characterized by having a completely filled outer electron shell (valence shell), which makes them chemically stable and largely unreactive under normal conditions. Because of this low reactivity, noble gases are often referred to as inert gases. The major noble gases include helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon. Among the given options, neon is a noble gas. Neon is widely used in neon lamps, advertising signs, and decorative lighting systems. When an electric current passes through neon gas in a sealed tube, it emits a bright reddish-orange glow, which makes it ideal for illuminated signs and display lighting. In contrast, oxygen, fluorine, and nitrogen are chemically reactive elements and do not belong to the noble gas group. Therefore, among the given options, neon is the noble gas.
Question: Which crop is the ‘odd one out’?
(a) Rice
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Wheat
Answer: d
Solution: Among the given crops, rice, jowar, and maize are mainly Kharif crops, whereas wheat is a Rabi crop. In India, crops are broadly classified into Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid crops based on the season in which they are grown. Kharif crops are generally sown during the monsoon season, usually between June and July, and harvested between September and October. These crops require higher temperatures and adequate rainfall for proper growth. Rice, jowar, and maize grow well under such climatic conditions and are therefore categorized as Kharif crops. In contrast, wheat is one of the most important Rabi crops in India. It is sown during the winter season, typically in October–November, and harvested in March–April. Rabi crops require relatively cooler temperatures during the growing period and drier conditions during harvesting. Thus, wheat differs from the other three crops because it belongs to the Rabi season rather than the Kharif season. Therefore, wheat is considered the odd one out.
Question: Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Manas – Assam
(b) Kanha – Madhya Pradesh
(c) Periyar – Kerala
(d) Nagarjun – Telangana
Answer: d
Solution: The question lists several national parks or wildlife reserves along with the states in which they are located and asks which pair is incorrectly matched. Manas National Park is located in the state of Assam and is also recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, so option (a) is correctly matched. Kanha National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh and is one of the most famous tiger reserves in India, making option (b) correct as well. Periyar National Park is situated in the state of Kerala and is also known as the Periyar Tiger Reserve, so option (c) is also correctly matched. However, Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, often referred to as Nagarjun, is spread across both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Therefore, associating it only with Telangana is not entirely correct. Hence, the pair Nagarjun – Telangana is considered incorrectly matched.
Question: Which country has a currency called ‘Rupiah’?
(a) Cambodia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Nepal
(d) Mauritius
Answer: b
Solution: The official currency of Indonesia is called the Rupiah. Indonesia is a large archipelagic country located in Southeast Asia, and its currency is issued and regulated by Bank Indonesia, the central bank of the country. The word “Rupiah” is derived from the Sanskrit word “Rupya,” which historically referred to a silver coin or a coin made of precious metal. In Indonesia, the Rupiah is used for all kinds of financial and economic transactions including trade, banking, and government payments. It is the primary medium of exchange across the country’s economy. In contrast, the currency of Cambodia is called the Riel, the currency of Nepal is the Nepalese Rupee, and the currency of Mauritius is the Mauritian Rupee. Although the Nepalese and Mauritian currencies also use the word “rupee,” the specific name Rupiah is uniquely associated with Indonesia. Therefore, the correct answer is Indonesia.
Question: The ‘Supernova theory’ related to the origin of the universe was proposed by whom?
(a) James Jeans
(b) Immanuel Kant
(c) Otto Schmidt
(d) Fred Hoyle
Answer: d
Solution: Throughout history, scientists have proposed various theories to explain the origin and development of the universe. One of the important ideas associated with stellar evolution and cosmic processes is related to the concept of supernova explosions, which is linked with the work of the renowned astronomer Fred Hoyle. Fred Hoyle was a British astrophysicist who made significant contributions to the study of stars, stellar nucleosynthesis, and the formation of elements in the universe. According to the concept associated with supernova processes, massive stars reach the final stage of their life cycle and explode violently in a supernova explosion, releasing enormous amounts of energy and matter into space. These explosions distribute heavy elements across the universe, which later contribute to the formation of new stars, planets, and other celestial bodies. Supernova events play an important role in enriching interstellar space with chemical elements necessary for cosmic evolution. Because of his work in astrophysics and theories related to stellar formation and cosmic processes, the supernova-related concept is often associated with Fred Hoyle. Therefore, the correct answer is Fred Hoyle.
Question: Which of the following books or works was not written by Phanishwar Nath Renu?
(a) Maila Anchal
(b) Parti Parikatha
(c) Kitne Chaurahae
(d) Gunahon Ka Devta
Answer: d
Solution: Phanishwar Nath Renu was a renowned Hindi novelist and storyteller who is especially known for developing the tradition of regional (anchalik) literature in Hindi. His works vividly depict rural life, local culture, social realities, and the struggles of ordinary people. One of his most famous novels is “Maila Anchal,” which is considered a landmark in Hindi regional literature and portrays the social and cultural life of rural Bihar in great detail. Another important work written by him is “Parti Parikatha,” which reflects the complexities of rural society and the impact of social changes on village life. His work “Kitne Chaurahae” is also an important literary contribution that explores social relationships and moral dilemmas in society. However, the novel “Gunahon Ka Devta” was written by the famous Hindi writer Dharamvir Bharati. This novel is widely known for its emotional depth and themes of love, sacrifice, and psychological conflict. Therefore, among the given options, “Gunahon Ka Devta” was not written by Phanishwar Nath Renu.
Question: What is the main objective of the ‘PM-USHA’ scheme?
(a) Providing free mid-day meals to students in government schools
(b) Improving the quality and infrastructure of higher education institutions in the country
(c) Providing low-interest loans to farmers in rural areas
(d) Providing free gas connections to women from poor families
Answer: b
Solution: PM-USHA (Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan) is an important initiative of the Government of India aimed at strengthening the higher education system in the country. The scheme focuses on improving the quality, accessibility, and institutional infrastructure of higher education institutions such as universities and colleges. PM-USHA is considered an upgraded and restructured version of the earlier RUSA (Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan) scheme. Under this initiative, both the central and state governments work together to develop educational institutions by enhancing infrastructure, expanding research facilities, promoting digital education, and improving teaching resources. The scheme also supports the establishment of modern laboratories, the modernization of libraries, the development of smart classrooms, and the introduction of advanced learning technologies. Through PM-USHA, the government aims to create a better academic environment for students and strengthen India’s higher education system so that it becomes more competitive at the global level. Therefore, the main objective of PM-USHA is to improve the quality and infrastructure of higher education institutions.
Question: INFLIBNET works for the development and networking of which field?
(a) Trade
(b) Service sector
(c) Library
(d) Transport
Answer: c
Solution: INFLIBNET (Information and Library Network Centre) is an important institution in India that works for the development and networking of libraries and information resources. It operates under the University Grants Commission (UGC) and its headquarters is located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The primary objective of INFLIBNET is to connect the libraries of universities and educational institutions across the country through digital networks and to facilitate easy access to academic and research information. Through this network, universities, research institutions, and scholars can access a wide range of electronic resources such as research papers, e-books, digital databases, and academic journals. INFLIBNET has also developed several major academic digital initiatives such as Shodhganga, e-ShodhSindhu, N-LIST, and SOUL, which provide researchers and students with extensive academic materials. These platforms help promote digital learning, research collaboration, and knowledge sharing across institutions. Thus, INFLIBNET plays a crucial role in strengthening the digital library system and networking of academic resources in India. Therefore, it mainly works in the field of libraries.
Question: Which of the following movements is not correctly matched with its year?
(a) Champaran Satyagraha – 1917
(b) Kheda Movement – 1918
(c) Khilafat Movement – 1928
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement – 1920
Answer: c
Solution: During the Indian freedom struggle, several important movements were organized against British rule. Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917 in the Champaran district of Bihar under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. It was Gandhi’s first major satyagraha movement in India and aimed at protesting against the exploitation of indigo farmers by British planters. The Kheda Movement occurred in 1918 in the Kheda district of Gujarat, where farmers protested against the collection of land revenue despite crop failure and demanded tax relief from the British government. The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, encouraged Indians to boycott British institutions, schools, and goods as a form of non-violent resistance against colonial rule. On the other hand, the Khilafat Movement actually began in 1919, not in 1928. It was initiated by Indian Muslim leaders to protest against the dismemberment of the Ottoman Caliphate after the First World War and to support the position of the Turkish Caliph. Therefore, matching the Khilafat Movement with the year 1928 is incorrect.
Question: Which of the following folk dance and state pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bihu – Assam
(b) Ghoomar – Rajasthan
(c) Phag – Haryana
(d) Rai – Himachal Pradesh
Answer: d
Solution: India has a rich tradition of folk dances that reflect the culture, festivals, and social life of different regions. Each state has its own distinctive folk dance that represents its cultural heritage. Bihu is a famous folk dance of Assam, performed during the Bihu festival and symbolizing joy and celebration associated with the harvest season. Ghoomar is a well-known folk dance of Rajasthan, traditionally performed by women during festivals, weddings, and other social occasions. Phag is a traditional folk dance and folk song style performed in Haryana and nearby regions during the festival of Holi, celebrating the arrival of spring and the spirit of festivity. However, the Rai dance actually belongs to Madhya Pradesh, particularly the Bundelkhand region, and not to Himachal Pradesh. Rai is known for its energetic performance style and rhythmic movements. Therefore, the pair Rai – Himachal Pradesh is not correctly matched.
Question: Who mainly led the Indian Revolt of 1857 in Bihar?
(a) Pir Ali Khan
(b) Amar Singh
(c) Babu Kunwar Singh
(d) Tatya Tope
Answer: c
Solution: The Revolt of 1857, often regarded as the First War of Indian Independence, was a major uprising against British colonial rule. It involved the participation of leaders and fighters from various parts of India. In Bihar, the revolt was mainly led by Babu Kunwar Singh, a prominent zamindar and freedom fighter from Jagdishpur in the Shahabad district (present-day Bhojpur). At the time of the revolt, he was around 80 years old, yet he demonstrated extraordinary courage and leadership. Kunwar Singh organized local soldiers and peasants to fight against the British forces and led several important battles in regions such as Arrah, Danapur, and Jagdishpur. He proved to be a highly skilled military strategist and successfully challenged the British army on multiple occasions. One of the most famous incidents associated with him occurred when he was injured while crossing the Ganga River; it is said that he cut off his wounded hand and offered it to the river as a symbol of sacrifice and determination. His younger brother Amar Singh also supported the struggle and continued resistance after Kunwar Singh’s death. Thus, Babu Kunwar Singh played the leading role in the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar.
Question: On which island of Indonesia is Mount Dukono volcano, which recently experienced a major eruption, located?
(a) Java
(b) Sumatra
(c) Halmahera
(d) Bali
Answer: c
Solution: Mount Dukono is one of the active volcanoes of Indonesia and is located on Halmahera Island. Halmahera Island is part of the Maluku Province of Indonesia and lies within the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region known for intense seismic and volcanic activity. The Ring of Fire is an area around the Pacific Ocean where many tectonic plates meet and interact, leading to frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Mount Dukono is considered one of the most persistently active volcanoes in Indonesia and frequently emits volcanic ash, gases, and sometimes lava. Recent eruptions have produced large ash clouds and environmental impacts in nearby regions, prompting local authorities to take safety measures for residents. Indonesia is one of the most volcanically active countries in the world, with more than 130 active volcanoes, many of which are located along the Ring of Fire. Therefore, Mount Dukono is situated on Halmahera Island.
Question: Where did the formal beginning of the Revolt of 1857 take place?
(a) Jhansi
(b) Meerut
(c) Delhi
(d) Kanpur
Answer: b
Solution: The Revolt of 1857 was one of the most significant events in Indian history and is often referred to as the First War of Indian Independence. The formal beginning of this revolt took place on 10 May 1857 in the Meerut cantonment. At that time, dissatisfaction was growing among Indian soldiers serving in the army of the British East India Company. One of the major causes of the revolt was the introduction of the Enfield rifle cartridges, which were rumored to be greased with the fat of cows and pigs. This rumor hurt the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim soldiers, as cows are sacred to Hindus and pigs are considered impure by Muslims. When the soldiers in Meerut refused to use these cartridges, the British authorities punished them severely, which increased resentment among the troops. On 10 May 1857, the soldiers rebelled, broke open the prison to free their imprisoned comrades, and marched toward Delhi. From there, the rebellion quickly spread to other regions such as Kanpur, Jhansi, Lucknow, and several parts of northern and central India. Thus, the formal beginning of the Revolt of 1857 is considered to have started from Meerut.
Question: Which movement truly established Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘national leader’?
(a) Champaran Satyagraha
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(d) Kheda Satyagraha
Answer: c
Solution: Mahatma Gandhi was one of the most influential leaders of the Indian freedom struggle. After returning to India from South Africa, he began leading several movements against British rule. Initially, movements such as the Champaran Satyagraha (1917) and Kheda Satyagraha (1918) were successful but were largely limited to regional issues. A major turning point came in 1919 when the British government passed the Rowlatt Act, which allowed authorities to arrest and detain individuals without trial. Gandhi strongly opposed this law, describing it as a severe threat to civil liberties and justice. In response, he launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha, calling for nationwide protests, strikes, and non-violent resistance against the act. This movement spread across the entire country and attracted participation from a wide range of people, including students, workers, and ordinary citizens. During the same period, the tragic Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar further intensified public anger against British rule. The nationwide nature of the Rowlatt Satyagraha brought Gandhi into the national political spotlight and established him as a major leader of the Indian freedom movement. Therefore, the movement that truly established Gandhi as a national leader was the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Question: Which metal was first widely used in the history of human civilization?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Gold
(d) Bronze
Answer: b
Solution: Metals played a crucial role in the development of human civilization. In the earliest period, humans primarily used tools made of stone, which is known as the Stone Age. Gradually, humans discovered metals and began using them to make tools, weapons, and other objects. According to historians and archaeologists, copper was the first metal that was widely used by humans. Copper is relatively soft, malleable, and easy to shape, which made it suitable for early humans to manufacture tools and implements. The period during which copper began to be widely used is known as the Copper Age or Chalcolithic Age. Later, people discovered that mixing copper with tin produced a stronger metal called bronze, which marked the beginning of the Bronze Age. Eventually, the use of iron became widespread during the Iron Age, leading to further technological and cultural developments. Therefore, the first metal widely used in human civilization was copper.
Question: Who was the chief priest (Rajpurohit) of King Madhav?
(a) Vashistha
(b) Gautama
(c) Vishwamitra
(d) Bharadwaj
Answer: b
Solution: In ancient Indian traditions, the chief priest or Rajpurohit held an important position in the royal court. The Rajpurohit advised the king on religious rituals, sacred ceremonies, and spiritual matters, and also guided the ruler in matters related to ethics, duty, and governance. According to traditional accounts, Rishi Gautama served as the chief priest of King Madhav. Gautama was one of the prominent sages mentioned in ancient Vedic literature and is associated with several hymns and traditions of the Vedic period. The Gautama lineage (Gautama Gotra) is also well known in Indian tradition. In ancient society, Rajpurohits were not only responsible for conducting religious rituals and sacrifices but also acted as advisors who helped kings maintain moral and social order in their kingdoms. Through their knowledge of scriptures and religious practices, they influenced both spiritual and administrative aspects of governance. Thus, Gautama is mentioned as the chief priest of King Madhav.
Question: Which statement about the Prime Minister is correct?
(i) He presides over meetings of the Cabinet.
(ii) He allocates work among the ministers.
(iii) He coordinates among all departments.
(iv) He appoints the Chief Justice, ambassadors, etc.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct.
(c) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct.
Answer: b
Solution: In India’s parliamentary system of government, the Prime Minister is the real executive head of the government and plays a central role in administration and policymaking. According to the Constitution of India, the Prime Minister is the leader of the Council of Ministers and the head of the Cabinet. The Prime Minister presides over Cabinet meetings in which important government policies, administrative decisions, and national issues are discussed. Another key responsibility of the Prime Minister is to allocate portfolios and responsibilities among ministers, deciding which minister will head a particular ministry or department. The Prime Minister also ensures proper coordination among different ministries and departments, which helps the government function smoothly and efficiently. Although the President of India formally appoints the Chief Justice of India, ambassadors, governors, and other high officials, these appointments are generally made based on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. However, constitutionally the formal power of appointment lies with the President, not directly with the Prime Minister. Therefore, statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct, while statement (iv) is not considered a direct constitutional function of the Prime Minister.
Question: Two statements are given below. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Assertion (A): The Chief Minister has an important role in legislative matters.
Reason (R): The Chief Minister plays an important role in policy formulation and in presenting government bills in the legislature.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) does not correctly explain Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer: a
Solution: In the federal system of India, each state has a Chief Minister who acts as the real executive head of the state government and also leads the Council of Ministers. The Chief Minister plays a crucial role in policymaking, administrative decisions, and legislative processes within the state. In legislative matters, the Chief Minister holds particular importance because he or she leads the government in planning policies and guiding the introduction of government bills in the state legislature. Most bills proposed by the state government are first approved by the Council of Ministers and are then presented before the legislature. The Chief Minister plays a key role in coordinating this entire process and ensuring that government policies are effectively translated into legislation. In addition, the Chief Minister defends government policies in the legislature, responds to questions raised by the opposition, and facilitates coordination among ministers to ensure the passage of bills. The Governor also performs certain legislative functions such as summoning, proroguing, or dissolving the state legislature based on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. Therefore, it is clear that the Chief Minister plays a significant role in legislative matters because of his or her central role in policy formulation and in presenting government bills. Hence, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question: Which of the following Tiger Reserves is located in Bihar?
(a) Valmiki
(b) Palamu
(c) Jim Corbett
(d) Ranthambore
Answer: a
Solution: To conserve tigers and protect their natural habitats, the Government of India launched Project Tiger in 1973. Under this initiative, several tiger reserves were established across different states of India. The only tiger reserve located in the state of Bihar is the Valmiki Tiger Reserve. It is situated in the West Champaran district near the border with Nepal. The Valmiki Tiger Reserve consists of the Valmiki National Park and the Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary, forming an important protected forest region. The reserve covers an area of more than 900 square kilometers and lies in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills, which provides an ideal habitat for wildlife. The area contains dense forests, grasslands, and diverse vegetation that support a variety of animal species. Apart from tigers, the reserve is also home to elephants, leopards, bears, deer, wild boars, and numerous bird species. Due to its rich biodiversity and ecological importance, the Valmiki Tiger Reserve plays a crucial role in wildlife conservation in Bihar. In contrast, Palamu Tiger Reserve is located in Jharkhand, Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve is in Uttarakhand, and Ranthambore Tiger Reserve is in Rajasthan. Therefore, the correct answer is Valmiki.
Question: Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Al₂O₃ is only an oxidation reaction
(b) Al₂O₃ is only a reduction reaction
(c) Both oxidation and reduction occur in Al₂O₃
(d) Al₂O₃ is not a redox reaction
Answer: c
Solution: In chemistry, a redox reaction (reduction–oxidation reaction) is a chemical reaction in which oxidation and reduction processes occur simultaneously. In such reactions, one substance loses electrons and undergoes oxidation, while another substance gains electrons and undergoes reduction. In reactions involving aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃), the formation of the compound involves both processes. Aluminium is a highly reactive metal and combines with oxygen to form aluminium oxide. During this reaction, aluminium atoms lose electrons and undergo oxidation, while oxygen atoms gain electrons and undergo reduction. Because both oxidation and reduction occur together, this type of reaction is categorized as a redox reaction. Redox reactions are extremely important in chemistry because they play vital roles in processes such as metal extraction, battery operation, corrosion, biological metabolism, and many industrial reactions. Therefore, in reactions related to Al₂O₃, both oxidation and reduction processes occur.
Question: Study the following statements and Answer:
(i) In India, the non-agricultural sector in villages is not very large.
(ii) The number of people employed in non-agricultural activities is extremely small.
(iii) With the expansion of good roads, transport, and other non-agricultural facilities, non-agricultural activities will increase in the coming years.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii)
Answer: c
Solution: The rural economy of India has traditionally been agriculture-based, and a large portion of the rural population depends directly or indirectly on agriculture for their livelihood. Although non-agricultural sectors such as small-scale industries, trade, transportation services, handicrafts, and rural enterprises exist in villages, their overall share in the rural economy has historically been limited. Therefore, it is correct to say that the non-agricultural sector in villages is not very large. However, it is not entirely correct to state that the number of people engaged in non-agricultural activities is extremely small, because many villagers are now involved in occupations such as retail shops, construction work, transport services, and small businesses. These activities are gradually expanding in rural areas. The third statement highlights that the development of infrastructure—such as better roads, transportation networks, markets, and communication systems—can significantly increase non-agricultural activities in rural regions. Improved infrastructure encourages the growth of small industries, trade, and service sectors, thereby creating additional employment opportunities beyond agriculture. Therefore, statements (i) and (iii) are correct, while statement (ii) is not entirely correct.
Question: Which statements are correct regarding Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)?
(i) They provide short-term loans for the agricultural sector.
(ii) A minimum of 15 persons are included.
(iii) Loans are usually given for one year and can later be extended up to three years.
(iv) They provide micro-financial services to non-profit organizations.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iii)
Answer: d
Solution: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are the lowest and most important units in the rural cooperative credit structure of India. Their main objective is to provide affordable credit to farmers in rural areas and support agricultural activities. PACS primarily provide short-term and medium-term loans to farmers so that they can purchase agricultural inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and farming equipment. These loans are usually provided for a short period, typically up to one year, and in some cases they may be extended up to three years depending on the needs of the borrower. PACS operate on cooperative principles and their members generally include local farmers and rural residents. However, the exact minimum number of members required may vary according to the cooperative laws of different states, so it cannot be universally stated that at least 15 persons must be included. Additionally, the primary function of PACS is to provide agricultural credit rather than micro-financial services to non-profit organizations. Therefore, among the given statements, only (i) and (iii) are correct.
Question: Which of the following equations is balanced?
(a) NaOH + Cl₂ → NaCl + NaOCl + H₂O
(b) 2NaOH + Cl₂ → 2NaCl + H₂O
(c) 2NaOH + Cl₂ → NaCl + NaOCl + H₂O
(d) NaOH + Cl₂ → NaCl + H₂
Answer: c
Solution: In chemistry, balancing a chemical equation is extremely important because it follows the Law of Conservation of Mass. According to this law, the number of atoms of each element must be the same on both sides of a chemical equation, meaning the total mass of reactants must equal the total mass of products. When chlorine gas (Cl₂) reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH), a special type of chemical reaction called a disproportionation reaction occurs. In this reaction, chlorine simultaneously undergoes both oxidation and reduction. One part of the chlorine is oxidized to form sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl), while another part is reduced to form sodium chloride (NaCl). During this reaction, water (H₂O) is also produced. The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
2NaOH + Cl₂ → NaCl + NaOCl + H₂O.
In this equation, the number of atoms of sodium, chlorine, oxygen, and hydrogen on both sides of the reaction is equal. Therefore, this equation satisfies the law of conservation of mass and is correctly balanced. Hence, option (c) represents the balanced chemical equation.
Question: The following statements are given about the Antyodaya Anna Yojana:
(1) It was launched in the year 2000.
(2) Families above the poverty line were identified by the central government.
(3) 20 kg of food grains are provided to rural families.
(4) Rice is provided at ₹3 per kilogram.
Choose the correct statements:
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 1 and 4 are correct
(c) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(d) Only 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: b
Solution: Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is an important social welfare scheme of the Government of India that aims to provide highly subsidized food grains to the poorest and most vulnerable families in the country. The scheme was launched in December 2000 during the government led by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The main objective of this scheme was to provide food security to the poorest families who live below the poverty line (BPL) and face severe economic hardship. Under this scheme, eligible families are provided food grains through the Public Distribution System (PDS) at very low prices. In the initial phase of the scheme, food grains such as wheat and rice were provided at highly subsidized rates. For example, rice was provided at around ₹3 per kilogram, making it affordable for the poorest households. The identification of beneficiaries is generally carried out by state governments, not the central government, and the beneficiaries belong to the poorest category of families rather than those above the poverty line. The quantity of food grains supplied has also been modified from time to time according to government policies. Therefore, statements (1) and (4) are correct.
Question: Which statements about Minimum Support Price (MSP) and Issue Price are correct?
(i) Minimum Support Price (MSP) is given by the government to farmers for their crops.
(ii) Under the issue price, the government sells food grains through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
(iii) MSP is always lower than the issue price so that farmers can benefit.
(iv) Issue price provides food grains to poor people at subsidized rates.
(a) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (ii) and (iv)
(d) All of the above
Answer: a
Solution: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is an important agricultural policy implemented by the Government of India to protect farmers from sharp declines in market prices. It ensures that farmers receive a guaranteed minimum price for their crops even if market prices fall below that level. MSP is announced by the government on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and mainly applies to crops such as wheat, rice, pulses, and oilseeds. On the other hand, the Issue Price refers to the price at which the government sells food grains to the public through the Public Distribution System (PDS). The PDS distributes essential commodities like wheat and rice to poor and needy families at subsidized rates. The issue price is usually lower than the market price in order to provide relief to economically weaker sections of society. However, it is not necessary that the MSP is always lower than the issue price because both prices serve different purposes. MSP protects farmers’ income, while issue price ensures food security for consumers, especially poor households. Therefore, statements (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct, while statement (iii) is incorrect.
Question: Choose the correct statements about mineral resources in India:
(i) India is rich in various mineral resources.
(ii) Bihar, which consists of peninsular rocks, contains many iron-rich minerals.
(iii) Peninsular rocks mainly contain both metallic and non-metallic minerals.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (i) and (iii)
Answer: d
Solution: India is a country rich in natural resources and possesses a wide variety of mineral resources that contribute significantly to industrial and economic development. Minerals such as coal, iron ore, bauxite, mica, manganese, limestone, and copper are found in different regions of the country. Therefore, the statement that India is rich in various mineral resources is correct. The Peninsular Plateau region of India is geologically very old and mainly consists of igneous and metamorphic rocks. These rock formations contain a large number of both metallic and non-metallic minerals, making the region highly important for mining activities. Major deposits of iron ore and other minerals are found in states such as Jharkhand, Odisha, Karnataka, and Chhattisgarh. Although parts of Bihar were once known for mineral resources, many major iron ore deposits are now located in the state of Jharkhand, which was separated from Bihar in the year 2000. Therefore, the statement that Bihar contains many iron-rich minerals is not entirely accurate today. Hence, statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
Question: Which statements related to coal resources are correct?
(i) Tertiary coal deposits in India are found in the state of Assam.
(ii) Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Odisha are major coal-producing states of India.
(iii) Coal in India is obtained from Gondwana and Tertiary rock formations.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
Answer: d
Solution: Coal is one of the most important energy resources in India and plays a crucial role in electricity generation, steel production, and industrial development. In India, coal deposits are mainly associated with two geological periods: the Gondwana period and the Tertiary period. Gondwana coal deposits are very old, approximately 250 million years old, and they are found in major coal-producing regions such as Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Madhya Pradesh. These deposits account for the majority of India’s coal production. On the other hand, Tertiary coal deposits are relatively younger and are mainly found in the northeastern states of India, including Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh. Several states in India contribute significantly to coal production. For example, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha are major coal-producing states, while Tamil Nadu produces lignite coal, particularly from the Neyveli lignite mines. Because of its abundance and importance, coal remains one of the primary sources of energy in the country. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question: Which of the following statements about the Bihar High Court is correct?
Statement I: The Patna High Court started its functioning in 1916 with a Chief Justice and six puisne judges.
Statement II: In 1947, the sanctioned strength of the court increased and six additional judges were included.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(c) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct
(d) Only Statement II is correct
Answer: b
Solution: The Patna High Court is one of the oldest High Courts in India and serves as the highest judicial authority in the state of Bihar. It was established on 3 February 1916 during the British colonial period to provide a higher judicial institution for the province of Bihar and Orissa. At the time of its establishment, the court began functioning with one Chief Justice and six puisne (associate) judges. Over time, as the volume of judicial work increased and administrative responsibilities expanded, changes were made in the structure and strength of the court. By the time of India’s independence in 1947, the sanctioned number of judges was increased and six additional judges were appointed to manage the growing workload of cases. Today, the Patna High Court continues to play a crucial role in the administration of justice in Bihar by protecting constitutional rights, conducting judicial review, and ensuring the rule of law. Therefore, both the given statements are correct.
Question: The payment made by the government to a producer so that the product can be supplied to the market at a lower price is called:
(a) Grant
(b) Cooperation
(c) Appropriation
(d) Subsidy
Answer: d
Solution: In economics, a subsidy is a form of financial assistance provided by the government to producers, industries, or consumers in order to reduce the cost of goods and services and encourage economic activities. When the government provides financial support to producers so that they can supply their products in the market at a lower price, it is known as a subsidy. The main objective of subsidies is to reduce production costs, increase the availability of essential goods, and provide relief to consumers. In India, the government provides subsidies in several sectors such as agriculture, fertilizers, food grains, LPG gas, and electricity. For example, through the Public Distribution System (PDS), the government supplies food grains at subsidized prices to poor households. Similarly, farmers receive subsidies on fertilizers and electricity to support agricultural production. Subsidies also help maintain social and economic balance by making essential commodities affordable for weaker sections of society. Therefore, the financial assistance provided by the government to producers to supply goods at lower market prices is called a subsidy.
Question: The Rangarajan Committee (2014) suggested a higher poverty line than the Tendulkar Committee. According to Rangarajan, what was the urban poverty line?
(a) ₹1407
(b) ₹1200
(c) ₹2200
(d) ₹972
Answer: a
Solution: In India, several committees have been formed from time to time to determine and review the poverty line. After the Tendulkar Committee (2009), the Rangarajan Committee was formed in 2014 to reassess the methodology for measuring poverty in the country. The Rangarajan Committee proposed a new method that considered a broader range of essential expenditures, including food, health care, education, housing, clothing, and other basic needs. Based on these considerations, the committee suggested a revised poverty line for both rural and urban areas. According to the Rangarajan Committee, the urban poverty line was set at ₹1407 per person per month. This means that any individual in an urban area whose monthly consumption expenditure was below ₹1407 would be considered to be living below the poverty line. Similarly, a separate poverty line was defined for rural areas as well. The committee emphasized that poverty measurement should not rely only on calorie intake but should also consider broader indicators such as living standards, health services, and access to education. Therefore, according to the Rangarajan Committee, the urban poverty line was ₹1407 per person per month.
Question: Assertion (A): If an object moves in a circular path with uniform speed, its velocity remains constant.
Reason (R): Velocity has both magnitude and direction, and a change in direction results in a change in velocity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R correctly explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not correctly explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
Answer: d
Solution: In physics, circular motion is an important concept that describes the motion of an object along a circular path. When an object moves with uniform speed in a circular path, its speed remains constant, but its velocity does not remain constant. This is because velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. Even though the magnitude of velocity (speed) remains the same, the direction of motion continuously changes at every point along the circular path. Since a change in direction results in a change in velocity, the velocity of the object is constantly changing during circular motion. Therefore, the assertion stating that the velocity remains constant is incorrect. The reason given is correct because velocity indeed depends on both magnitude and direction, and any change in direction causes a change in velocity. This is also why a centripetal force acts on an object moving in circular motion to continuously change its direction toward the center of the circle. Hence, Assertion (A) is incorrect while Reason (R) is correct.
Question: What is the process called by which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells?
(a) Cell synthesis
(b) Cell division
(c) Cell respiration
(d) Cell fermentation
Answer: b
Solution: In biology, cell division is the process through which a parent cell divides to form two or more daughter cells. This process is essential for the growth, development, reproduction, and repair of tissues in living organisms. Cell division ensures that genetic information is accurately transmitted from one generation of cells to the next. There are two main types of cell division: mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis occurs in somatic (body) cells and results in the formation of two genetically identical daughter cells. This process is responsible for growth and tissue repair in multicellular organisms. On the other hand, meiosis occurs in reproductive cells and produces four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes, which are involved in the formation of gametes such as sperm and egg cells. During cell division, the DNA first replicates and then the cell splits into separate cells. This process plays a crucial role in maintaining genetic continuity and ensuring the proper functioning of living organisms. Therefore, the process in which a parent cell divides into daughter cells is called cell division.
Question: The twinkling of stars is mainly due to which phenomenon?
(a) Scattering of light
(b) Atmospheric refraction
(c) Reflection of light
(d) Diffraction of light
Answer: b
Solution: The twinkling of stars, scientifically known as stellar scintillation, occurs mainly due to atmospheric refraction. When light from distant stars enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it passes through several layers of air that have different densities and temperatures. These variations cause continuous changes in the refractive index of the atmosphere. As a result, the path of the light rays coming from the stars bends repeatedly in different directions while passing through these layers. Because of this constant bending, the intensity and apparent position of the light reaching our eyes change rapidly. Consequently, stars appear to become alternately brighter and dimmer, giving the impression that they are twinkling. Planets, on the other hand, generally do not twinkle as much because they are closer to the Earth and appear as larger disks rather than point sources of light. Therefore, the main reason for the twinkling of stars is atmospheric refraction.
Question: If the magnitude of electric current flowing through a straight conductor is increased, what will be the effect on the strength of the magnetic field produced?
(a) It will increase
(b) It will decrease
(c) It will remain the same
(d) It will first increase and then decrease
Answer: a
Solution: When an electric current flows through a straight conductor, it produces a magnetic field around it. This phenomenon was first demonstrated by the Oersted experiment, which showed that electric current and magnetism are closely related. The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor depends directly on the magnitude of the current flowing through it. According to physical laws, the magnetic field produced around a straight conductor is directly proportional to the electric current passing through the conductor. This means that if the current flowing through the conductor increases, the magnetic field produced around it also becomes stronger. The direction of the magnetic field lines around the conductor can be determined by the right-hand thumb rule. This principle is widely used in many electrical devices such as electromagnets, electric motors, and generators, where magnetic fields generated by electric currents are utilized to perform useful work. Therefore, increasing the current in a straight conductor increases the strength of the magnetic field.
Question: What is the main function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain?
(a) It helps the parts of the brain move freely.
(b) It protects the brain from external shocks and injuries.
(c) It only controls blood pressure.
(d) It controls muscle contraction.
Answer: b
Solution: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear and colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is produced in specialized structures of the brain called ventricles and circulates throughout the central nervous system. One of the most important functions of CSF is to act as a protective cushion for the brain and spinal cord. It absorbs shocks and protects the brain from sudden impacts or injuries that might occur due to movements or external forces. In addition to providing mechanical protection, CSF also helps in transporting nutrients to brain tissues and removing metabolic waste products from the central nervous system. It plays a role in maintaining the proper chemical environment and pressure within the brain. By acting as a fluid buffer, CSF helps the brain maintain stability and ensures the smooth functioning of neural processes. Therefore, the main function of cerebrospinal fluid is to protect the brain from external shocks and injuries.
Question: Assertion (A): The cells that control the opening and closing of stomata are called guard cells.
Reason (R): When stomata close, guard cells shrink because they move outward.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R correctly explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not correctly explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) R is correct but A is incorrect.
Answer: c
Solution: In plants, small pores present on the surface of leaves are known as stomata. These stomata play an important role in gas exchange and transpiration. Each stoma is surrounded by two specialized cells called guard cells. These guard cells regulate the opening and closing of the stomatal pore. When guard cells absorb water, they become swollen and curved, which causes the stomatal pore to open. When water moves out of the guard cells, they lose turgidity and become flaccid, leading to the closing of the stomata. Therefore, the assertion stating that the cells controlling the opening and closing of stomata are called guard cells is correct. However, the reason given in the question is incorrect because stomata close due to the loss of water from guard cells, not simply because the cells move outward. Hence, the correct conclusion is that Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
Question: What happens when a small piece of zinc is placed in dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl)?
(a) Hydrogen gas is released.
(b) Oxygen gas is released.
(c) Carbon dioxide gas is released.
(d) No reaction occurs.
Answer: a
Solution: When the metal zinc (Zn) is placed in hydrochloric acid (HCl), a chemical reaction occurs that is classified as a metal–acid reaction. In this reaction, zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to form zinc chloride (ZnCl₂) and hydrogen gas (H₂). This reaction is an example of a displacement reaction, because zinc displaces hydrogen from the acid. The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂↑.
During the reaction, bubbles of hydrogen gas are produced, which can be easily observed. Zinc is a moderately reactive metal and therefore reacts readily with acids such as hydrochloric acid. The hydrogen gas produced in the reaction is highly flammable and can be identified by bringing a burning matchstick near the gas, which produces a characteristic ‘pop’ sound. Such reactions between metals and acids are very common in chemistry and are also used in various laboratory and industrial processes. Therefore, when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is released.
Question: In the figure below, the position of an object is shown (distance on the y-axis and time on the x-axis). According to the graph, which statement about the motion of the object is correct?
(a) The object is at rest.
(b) The object is moving with uniform velocity.
(c) The object is moving with non-uniform velocity.
(d) The object has uniform acceleration.
Answer: a
Solution: In physics, a position–time graph is used to analyze the motion of an object. In such a graph, the x-axis represents time while the y-axis represents the position or distance of the object from a reference point. If the graph shows a horizontal straight line, it means that the position of the object does not change as time passes. In other words, even though time is increasing, the distance of the object from the reference point remains constant. This indicates that the object is not moving and is in a state of rest. If the object were moving with uniform velocity, the position–time graph would appear as a straight line with a constant slope. If the velocity were non-uniform, the graph would appear as a curved line. Since the given graph shows that the position of the object remains unchanged with time, it clearly indicates that the object is stationary. Therefore, the correct statement is that the object is at rest.
Question: Match List-I (Name of Writ) with List-II (Judicial Direction/Meaning).
| List-I | List-II |
| 1. Habeas Corpus | A. By what legal authority a person holds a public office |
| 2. Mandamus | B. Cancels or quashes an order |
| 3. Quo Warranto | C. Orders a public authority to perform a statutory duty |
| 4. Certiorari | D. Orders that a person be produced before the court |
(a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
Answer: a
Solution:
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue various writs for the protection of fundamental rights and to ensure that public authorities act according to law. These writs act as important judicial remedies against misuse of power. Habeas Corpus literally means “produce the body.” It is issued when a person is illegally detained, directing the authority to present the detained person before the court so that the legality of the detention can be examined. Mandamus, meaning “we command,” is issued by a court to direct a public authority, government official, or lower court to perform a statutory duty that it has failed or refused to perform. Quo Warranto means “by what authority.” Through this writ, the court questions the legality of a person occupying a public office and asks under what authority that person holds the position. Certiorari is issued by a higher court to review the proceedings of a lower court or tribunal and to quash its order if it has acted beyond its jurisdiction or violated legal procedures. Therefore, the correct matching is 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B.
Question: Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| 1. Russian serfdom abolished | a. 1896 |
| 2. First Olympic Games (modern) | b. 1861 |
| 3. First commercial film | c. 1825 |
| 4. First passenger railway in England | d. 1895 |
(a) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
Answer: a
Solution:
Several important events in world history occurred during the nineteenth century and played a major role in shaping social reforms, technological progress, and global sporting culture. In Russia, the system of agricultural serfdom was abolished in 1861 by Tsar Alexander II. This reform granted personal freedom to millions of peasants who had previously been tied to landowners, and it marked a significant step toward social and economic modernization in Russia. The first modern Olympic Games were held in 1896 in Athens, Greece, reviving the ancient Greek sporting tradition and establishing a global platform for international sports competition. The first commercial film screening took place in 1895, when the Lumière brothers of France publicly exhibited moving pictures, laying the foundation of the modern film industry. Meanwhile, the first passenger railway service in England began in 1825 on the Stockton–Darlington Railway, representing a major milestone in the history of transportation and the development of railway systems worldwide. Therefore, the correct matching is 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c.
Question: Match List-I with List-II correctly.
| List-I | List-II |
| a. Revamped Public Distribution System | (i) Priority households |
| b. Antyodaya Anna Yojana | (ii) Backward blocks |
| c. Annapurna Scheme | (iii) Poorest among the poor |
| d. National Food Security Act | (iv) Destitute senior citizens |
(a) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(b) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(c) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(d) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
Answer: a
Solution:
The Government of India has introduced several schemes to strengthen the food security system and provide subsidized food grains to economically weaker sections of society. These programs aim to reduce hunger, poverty, and nutritional insecurity. The Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS) was introduced in 1992 to improve the functioning of the public distribution network in economically backward and remote blocks of the country. Its objective was to ensure that people living in underdeveloped regions receive adequate food supplies through fair price shops. The Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) was launched in 2000 with the aim of supporting the poorest among the poor families by providing food grains at highly subsidized rates. Under this scheme, selected families receive a fixed quantity of wheat and rice every month at very low prices. The Annapurna Scheme, also introduced in 2000, provides free food grains to destitute senior citizens who are eligible for old-age pensions but are not receiving them for any reason. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 provides legal entitlement to food grains for a large section of the population classified as priority households, ensuring affordable food supply through the Public Distribution System. Therefore, the correct matching is a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i).
Question: Match List I (Primitive Agriculture) with List II (Related State).
| List-I | List-II |
| a. Bewar | (i) Madhya Pradesh |
| b. Podu | (ii) Andhra Pradesh |
| c. Jhum | (iii) Jharkhand |
(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(b) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(d) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
Answer: a
Solution:
In many tribal and forested regions of India, a traditional agricultural method known as primitive agriculture or shifting cultivation has been practiced for centuries. In this method, farmers clear small patches of forest by cutting and burning vegetation and cultivate crops on the cleared land for a few years. After the soil loses its fertility, the farmers abandon that land and shift to another patch of forest to repeat the process. This practice is closely associated with tribal communities and is adapted to the ecological conditions of hilly and forested regions. Different regions of India use different names for this method of cultivation. Bewar cultivation is mainly practiced in the tribal areas of Madhya Pradesh, where small forest patches are cleared and cultivated temporarily. Podu cultivation is common in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, especially in hilly regions inhabited by tribal groups who practice shifting agriculture on slopes. Jhum cultivation is widely practiced in North-Eastern India and parts of Jharkhand, where forest land is cleared and burned before crops are grown for a limited period. Therefore, the correct matching is a-i, b-ii, c-iii.
Question: Match the following correctly.
| List-I | List-II |
| a. Kal Baisakhi | (i) Dry hot wind |
| b. Mango showers | (ii) Local storm |
| c. Loo | (iii) Pre-monsoon rainfall (Konkan coast) |
| d. Norwester | (iv) Local storm of Assam |
(a) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(b) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(d) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Answer: a
Solution:
During the summer and pre-monsoon season in India, several types of local winds, storms, and rainfall patterns occur which significantly influence the climate and agriculture of different regions. Kal Baisakhi refers to a violent local thunderstorm that occurs mainly in West Bengal and nearby eastern regions during April and May. It brings strong winds, lightning, and sudden rainfall, often causing damage but also providing temporary relief from intense heat. Therefore, it corresponds to (ii) local storm. Mango showers are a type of pre-monsoon rainfall experienced mainly along the Konkan coast and in parts of southern India. These rains help in the early ripening of mangoes, which is why they are popularly known as mango showers, corresponding to (iii). Loo is an extremely hot and dry wind that blows across the northern plains of India during the summer months, especially in May and June, raising temperatures and causing heat waves. Hence it corresponds to (i). Norwesters are powerful thunderstorms that occur mainly in Assam and the northeastern region, associated with intense winds and rainfall, so they correspond to (iv). Therefore, the correct matching is a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv.
Question: Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| a. Pupil | (i) Focuses light |
| b. Retina | (ii) Regulates and controls the amount of light |
| c. Lens | (iii) Where images are formed |
| d. Cornea | (iv) Opaque membrane |
(a) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(b) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(c) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(d) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Answer: a
Solution:
The human eye is one of the most important sensory organs of the body and plays a crucial role in the sense of vision. It works by receiving light rays from objects and converting them into nerve impulses that are interpreted by the brain as images. Each part of the eye performs a specific function in this process. The pupil is a small opening located in the center of the iris and it controls the amount of light entering the eye. In bright light it becomes smaller and in dim light it expands, so it corresponds to (ii) regulating and controlling the amount of light. The retina is a light-sensitive layer present at the back of the eye where the image of the object is formed. This image is then converted into nerve signals and transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve, therefore it corresponds to (iii). The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil that focuses light rays onto the retina, enabling clear vision of objects at different distances, so it corresponds to (i). The cornea forms the outermost protective layer of the eye and helps protect internal structures; in the given list it is represented as (iv) an opaque membrane. Therefore, the correct matching is a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4.
Question: Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| a. Metal oxide + acid | (i) H₃O⁺ + Cl⁻ |
| b. HCl + H₂O | (ii) Salt + CO₂ + H₂O |
| c. Metal carbonate + acid | (iii) Salt + H₂O |
| d. NaOH + HCl | (iv) NaCl + H₂O |
(a) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(b) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(c) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(d) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Answer: a
Solution:
Chemical reactions between acids, bases, oxides, and carbonates follow certain predictable patterns based on the properties of the reactants involved. When a metal oxide reacts with an acid, the reaction typically produces a salt and water. Metal oxides behave like bases, so their reaction with acids is similar to a neutralization reaction. Hence it corresponds to (iii) salt + H₂O. When hydrochloric acid (HCl) dissolves in water, it undergoes ionization and produces hydronium ions (H₃O⁺) and chloride ions (Cl⁻). This process explains the acidic nature of hydrochloric acid in aqueous solutions, therefore it corresponds to (i). When metal carbonates react with acids, the reaction produces a salt, carbon dioxide (CO₂), and water. This reaction is commonly observed in laboratory experiments where carbonates react with acids and release carbon dioxide gas, so it corresponds to (ii). Finally, the reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a classic neutralization reaction that produces sodium chloride (NaCl) and water, corresponding to (iv). Therefore, the correct matching is a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4.
Question: The theme of which recently held international summit was “Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet”?
(a) G20
(b) COP-16
(c) ASEAN 2024
(d) COP-29
Answer: a
Solution: The G20 Summit is an important forum of the world’s major developed and developing economies where global economic cooperation, development policies, and international challenges are discussed. The theme of the 2024 G20 Summit was “Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet.” This theme emphasized the importance of sustainable development, environmental protection, climate action, and inclusive economic growth at the global level. The G20 includes around 20 major economies of the world, such as India, the United States, China, Russia, Japan, Germany, France, the United Kingdom, and others. The forum plays a crucial role in addressing issues such as global economic stability, climate change, energy security, and development challenges faced by emerging and developing nations. During the summit, member countries discussed various initiatives related to Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), green energy, climate finance, and strengthening international cooperation. Therefore, the correct answer is G20.
Question: Which country hosted the FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup Championship 2025?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Thailand
(d) Kazakhstan
Answer: c
Solution: FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs), also known as the International Chess Federation, is the global governing body responsible for organizing international chess tournaments and championships. The FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup 2025 was hosted by Thailand. This championship is an important international tournament for top female chess players from different countries. It provides a competitive platform for talented players to showcase their skills and compete at the global level. FIDE organizes such tournaments to promote chess worldwide and to encourage the development of chess among women. Hosting the Women’s Chess World Cup in Thailand also contributed to the promotion of chess in Asia and the global chess community. Thus, Thailand served as the host nation for the FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup Championship 2025.
Question: What was the name of the special FM channel launched by All India Radio for Prayagraj Mahakumbh 2025?
(a) Kumbh FM
(b) Kumbhvani
(c) Radio Ganga
(d) Mela Radio
Answer: b
Solution: The Prayagraj Mahakumbh 2025 is considered one of the largest religious and cultural gatherings in the world, attracting millions of pilgrims and visitors from across India and abroad. To provide timely and useful information to devotees during this massive event, All India Radio (Akashvani) launched a special FM channel named “Kumbhvani.” The purpose of this channel was to broadcast important information related to the Mahakumbh, including traffic updates, security guidelines, event schedules, and announcements related to the fair. Through this channel, pilgrims could easily receive updates about various activities, facilities, and arrangements at the Kumbh Mela. The broadcasts also included devotional music, spiritual discourses, cultural programs, and official announcements. This initiative helped millions of visitors stay informed and contributed to the smooth management and organization of the event. Therefore, the name of the special FM channel launched by All India Radio for Mahakumbh 2025 was Kumbhvani.
Question: On 3 October 2024, which language was granted the status of a ‘Classical Language’ by the Government of India?
(a) Marathi
(b) Hindi
(c) Punjabi
(d) Gujarati
Answer: a
Solution: The Government of India grants the status of “Classical Language” to languages that have a long history, rich literary tradition, and significant cultural heritage. To receive this status, a language must generally have a recorded history of at least 1500–2000 years and an independent ancient literary tradition. On 3 October 2024, the Government of India granted Marathi the status of a Classical Language. Marathi has a rich literary heritage and has played an important role in the cultural and social history of India. Its literature includes significant contributions from the Bhakti movement, with saints such as Sant Dnyaneshwar, Sant Tukaram, and Namdev producing influential spiritual and literary works. Marathi literature has greatly influenced Indian culture, philosophy, and society over centuries. Granting classical language status helps promote research, preservation, and academic study of the language, and universities may establish specialized research centers for it. Therefore, the correct answer is Marathi.
Question: The author of the famous novel The Shadow Lines, who received the International Booker Prize 2024, is:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Amitav Ghosh
(c) Daniel Barenboim
(d) Anne Michaels
Answer: b
Solution: The Shadow Lines is a well-known novel written by Amitav Ghosh, an internationally acclaimed Indian author. The novel was first published in 1988 and is regarded as one of the most important works of modern Indian English literature. The story explores themes such as history, memory, nationalism, borders, and personal identity, presenting a unique narrative that moves across different places and time periods. Amitav Ghosh is widely respected for his ability to combine historical events with human experiences in his writing. His other famous works include The Glass Palace, Sea of Poppies, River of Smoke, and The Hungry Tide. Through his novels and essays, he has addressed subjects such as colonial history, migration, environmental issues, and cultural connections across regions. For his outstanding literary contribution and global influence in literature, he was honored with the International Booker Prize in 2024, which is one of the most prestigious international literary awards. Therefore, the correct answer is Amitav Ghosh.
Question: Who was awarded the Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2021?
(a) Brahma Kumaris Spiritual University
(b) Art of Living
(c) Gita Press, Gorakhpur
(d) ISKCON
Answer: c
Solution: The Gandhi Peace Prize is a prestigious international award given by the Government of India. It was instituted in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. This award recognizes individuals or institutions that have made significant contributions toward social service, peace, non-violence, and human welfare, reflecting the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi. For the year 2021, the Gandhi Peace Prize was awarded to Gita Press, Gorakhpur. Gita Press was founded in 1923 by Jaydayal Goyanka and Hanuman Prasad Poddar. The institution is widely known for publishing and distributing Hindu religious and spiritual literature at very affordable prices. Gita Press has played a significant role in promoting Indian culture, spirituality, and ethical values by publishing texts such as the Bhagavad Gita, Ramcharitmanas, the Puranas, and other religious scriptures. For nearly a century, it has contributed to preserving and spreading spiritual knowledge among the masses. Due to this remarkable contribution to society and cultural heritage, Gita Press, Gorakhpur was honored with the Gandhi Peace Prize for 2021.
Question: Which city will host the Commonwealth Games 2026?
(a) Sydney
(b) Cape Town
(c) Glasgow
(d) London
Answer: c
Solution: The Commonwealth Games is a major international multi-sport event in which athletes from countries that are members of the Commonwealth of Nations participate. These games are generally held every four years and include sports such as athletics, swimming, boxing, badminton, wrestling, and many others. The 2026 Commonwealth Games will be hosted by the city of Glasgow in Scotland. Glasgow has previously hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2014, which was widely regarded as a successful event. Initially, the Australian state of Victoria had been selected to host the 2026 Games, but it later withdrew due to financial and logistical challenges. After this withdrawal, Glasgow was chosen to take over the hosting responsibilities. The city already has well-developed sports infrastructure and stadiums from the 2014 Games, making it suitable for organizing the event efficiently. The Commonwealth Games aim to promote sportsmanship, cultural exchange, and cooperation among Commonwealth nations. Therefore, the host city for the 2026 Commonwealth Games is Glasgow.
Question: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2025, announced in October 2025?
(a) Donald Trump
(b) Casey Cullman
(c) María Corina Machado
(d) Ole Danbolt
Answer: c
Solution: The Nobel Peace Prize is one of the most prestigious international awards and is given to individuals or organizations that have made significant contributions to peace, human rights, democracy, and international cooperation. The award is presented according to the will of Alfred Nobel, the Swedish inventor of dynamite, and the winner is selected by the Norwegian Nobel Committee. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025, announced in October 2025, was awarded to María Corina Machado. She is a prominent Venezuelan political leader and human rights activist known for advocating democracy and political reforms in Venezuela. Machado has been actively involved in promoting transparent governance, free elections, and the protection of civil liberties in her country. Her efforts have highlighted the importance of democratic values and human rights at the international level. In recognition of her commitment to democratic principles and peaceful political activism, she was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2025.
Question: Who was awarded India’s highest cinema honour, the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, for the year 2021?
(a) Rajinikanth
(b) Asha Parekh
(c) Waheeda Rehman
(d) Amitabh Bachchan
Answer: c
Solution: The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is the highest and most prestigious honour in Indian cinema. It is presented by the Government of India for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema. The award was instituted in 1969 and is named after Dadasaheb Phalke, who is regarded as the father of Indian cinema. For the year 2021, the award was conferred on the legendary actress Waheeda Rehman. She is one of the most respected and celebrated actresses in the history of Indian cinema and has worked in numerous iconic Hindi films. Some of her most famous films include Guide, Pyaasa, Kaagaz Ke Phool, Chaudhvin Ka Chand, and Sahib Bibi Aur Ghulam. Known for her graceful acting, expressive performances, and versatility, she played a major role in shaping the golden era of Hindi cinema. Her career spans more than five decades, and her contribution to the film industry has been widely appreciated. In recognition of her remarkable contribution to Indian cinema, she was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2021.
Question: The prestigious Stockholm Water Prize 2025 was awarded to a renowned water historian and scientist from which country?
(a) Austria
(b) New Zealand
(c) Norway
(d) Japan
Answer: a
Solution: The Stockholm Water Prize is one of the world’s most prestigious international awards in the field of water research, water conservation, and water resource management. It is often referred to as the “Nobel Prize of Water.” The prize is awarded by the Stockholm International Water Institute (SIWI) and presented by the King of Sweden. In 2025, the prize was awarded to a distinguished water historian and scientist from Austria for his significant contributions to the study of water resources and their role in human civilization. His research focused on the historical development of water management systems and how societies have interacted with water resources over time. His work also highlighted the importance of sustainable water management in addressing modern environmental challenges such as climate change and water scarcity. By connecting historical perspectives with contemporary environmental issues, his research has provided valuable insights into sustainable water governance. Therefore, the correct answer is Austria.
Question: Under the Digital India initiative, on which date did the government announce the New PAN 2.0 project in 2024?
(a) 12 July
(b) 25 November
(c) 16 August
(d) 12 September
Answer: b
Solution: Under the Digital India programme, the Government of India has taken several initiatives to modernize governance and improve transparency in financial and tax administration. As part of these efforts, the government announced the New PAN 2.0 project on 25 November 2024. PAN (Permanent Account Number) is an important financial identification number issued by the Income Tax Department of India and is used for tax payments, banking transactions, and various financial activities. The PAN 2.0 project aims to make the PAN system more secure, efficient, and digitally integrated. Through this initiative, PAN-related services are expected to become faster and easier for citizens, and better integration with various government databases will be achieved. The project is also intended to improve digital governance, transparency, and efficiency in tax administration. Therefore, the New PAN 2.0 project was announced on 25 November 2024.
Question: Who is the current President of World Athletics?
(a) Thomas Bach
(b) Sebastian Coe
(c) Gianni Infantino
(d) P. T. Usha
Answer: b
Solution: World Athletics is the international governing body responsible for regulating and organizing athletics competitions worldwide. Earlier, it was known as the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF), but the name was later changed to World Athletics. The current President of World Athletics is Sebastian Coe, a renowned British athlete and sports administrator. Sebastian Coe had an outstanding athletic career and won Olympic gold medals in the 1500 metres and 800 metres events. After retiring from competitive athletics, he moved into sports administration and played a significant role in the development and promotion of athletics globally. He has been serving as the President of World Athletics since 2015. Under his leadership, several reforms have been introduced in international athletics, including stronger anti-doping measures, modernization of competition rules, and promotion of global participation in athletics events. Therefore, the current President of World Athletics is Sebastian Coe.
Question: Who assumed office as the new Chairperson of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) on 1 March 2025?
(a) Madhabi Puri Buch
(b) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
(c) Rajiv Kumar
(d) Ajay Tyagi
Answer: b
Solution: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the primary regulatory authority responsible for regulating the securities and capital markets in India. It was established in 1988 and later granted statutory powers through the SEBI Act of 1992. SEBI’s main objective is to protect the interests of investors, promote transparency in the capital market, and ensure the orderly functioning of financial markets. On 1 March 2025, Tuhin Kanta Pandey assumed office as the new Chairperson of SEBI. He is a senior Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer who previously served in important positions within the Ministry of Finance. With his extensive administrative experience, his leadership is expected to strengthen regulatory mechanisms and improve transparency and efficiency in India’s capital markets. SEBI regulates activities related to stock exchanges, mutual funds, listed companies, and other market intermediaries, ensuring fair practices and investor protection in the financial system. Therefore, Tuhin Kanta Pandey became the Chairperson of SEBI on 1 March 2025.
Question: According to Forbes India, which company was not included among the top four IT companies in India by market capitalization in 2025?
(a) Tata Consultancy Services
(b) Infosys
(c) Tech Mahindra Limited
(d) HCL Technologies
Answer: c
Solution: The Information Technology (IT) sector of India is one of the fastest-growing industries in the world and plays a major role in the country’s economic growth, exports, and employment generation. Several Indian IT companies have established a strong global presence by providing services such as software development, cloud computing, digital transformation, artificial intelligence, and IT consulting. According to a report by Forbes India, the top IT companies in India based on market capitalization in 2025 included Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Infosys, and HCL Technologies, which are among the largest technology service providers in the world. These companies have a strong international client base and provide a wide range of digital and technological services to businesses across different industries. Although Tech Mahindra Limited is also a major IT company in India and provides services in areas such as telecommunications technology and enterprise solutions, it was not included among the top four IT companies by market capitalization in 2025 according to the Forbes India ranking. Therefore, among the given options, Tech Mahindra Limited is the company that was not included in the top four IT companies in India by market capitalization in 2025.
Question: Which Indian state will host the BWF World Junior Badminton Championships 2025?
(a) Manipur
(b) Tripura
(c) Assam
(d) Sikkim
Answer: c
Solution: The BWF World Junior Badminton Championships is an important international tournament organized by the Badminton World Federation (BWF). This competition brings together the most talented young badminton players from across the world and serves as a platform for emerging athletes to showcase their skills at the international level. In 2025, the hosting rights for this prestigious tournament were given to the Indian state of Assam. The city of Guwahati has been selected as the venue for organizing this global sporting event. Hosting the championship is expected to further promote the popularity of badminton in India and encourage young athletes to participate in the sport. Over the past few years, India has achieved remarkable success in badminton with players such as P. V. Sindhu, Saina Nehwal, Kidambi Srikanth, and Lakshya Sen performing exceptionally well at the international level. Organizing the World Junior Badminton Championships will also help improve sports infrastructure and provide valuable international exposure to Indian players. Therefore, Assam will host the BWF World Junior Badminton Championships 2025.
Question: In 2025, which honour will be conferred upon British Prime Minister Keir Starmer to strengthen India–UK relations?
(a) Sansad Ratna
(b) Order of Merit
(c) Living Bridge
(d) Global Leadership Award
Answer: c
Solution: India and the United Kingdom share a long history of political, economic, educational, and cultural relations. Both countries continue to strengthen their partnership in areas such as trade, science and technology, education, diplomacy, and cultural exchange. In 2025, British Prime Minister Keir Starmer will be honoured with the “Living Bridge” award to further strengthen and celebrate the close relationship between the two countries. The term “Living Bridge” symbolizes the strong connection between India and the United Kingdom through people, culture, and cooperation. The award is given to individuals who have made significant contributions toward enhancing bilateral relations and promoting collaboration between the two nations. India and the UK have extensive cooperation in sectors such as education, business, innovation, and cultural exchange, and the Indian diaspora in the UK also plays a major role in strengthening these ties. By recognizing Keir Starmer with this honour, the initiative aims to highlight the growing partnership and mutual cooperation between the two countries. Therefore, the honour that will be presented to him in 2025 is the Living Bridge Award.
Question: Who was named the Best International Cricketer in the BCCI Naman Awards 2025?
(a) Smriti Mandhana
(b) Shafali Verma
(c) Deepti Sharma
(d) Harmanpreet Kaur
Answer: a
Solution: The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) organizes the Naman Awards every year to recognize outstanding performances by Indian cricketers in different categories. These awards celebrate the achievements of players who have made exceptional contributions to Indian cricket at both domestic and international levels. In 2025, the award for Best International Cricketer was given to Smriti Mandhana. She is one of the most prominent players in the Indian women’s cricket team and is widely regarded as one of the best female batswomen in the world. Mandhana has delivered several match-winning performances in One Day Internationals (ODIs), Test matches, and T20 Internationals. Her elegant batting style, consistency, and ability to score runs in crucial situations have made her a key player for the Indian team. She has played a significant role in enhancing the global reputation of Indian women’s cricket. In recognition of her outstanding achievements and contributions to international cricket, Smriti Mandhana was honoured with the BCCI Naman Award 2025 for Best International Cricketer.
Question: In March 2025, after the inclusion of Madhav Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh, what became the total number of National Parks in India?
(a) 58
(b) 59
(c) 51
(d) 56
Answer: a
Solution: National Parks and wildlife sanctuaries are established in India to ensure the protection of biodiversity, conservation of wildlife, and maintenance of ecological balance. These protected areas play an important role in safeguarding endangered species and preserving natural habitats. In March 2025, Madhav Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh was included in the official list of National Parks in India. With this addition, the total number of National Parks in the country increased to 58. Madhya Pradesh is often referred to as the “Tiger State of India” because it has a large number of tiger reserves and protected forest areas. Some of the well-known national parks in the state include Kanha National Park, Bandhavgarh National Park, Pench National Park, Satpura National Park, and Panna National Park. The inclusion of Madhav National Park is expected to strengthen wildlife conservation efforts and promote eco-tourism in the region. Therefore, after the addition of Madhav Tiger Reserve, the total number of National Parks in India became 58.
Question: When was the First Asian Buddhist Summit held in New Delhi?
(a) 5–6 November 2024
(b) December 2025
(c) 8 October 2024
(d) February 2025
Answer: a
Solution: The First Asian Buddhist Summit was held in New Delhi on 5–6 November 2024. The purpose of this summit was to promote the Buddhist cultural heritage, philosophical teachings, and spiritual traditions across Asian countries. India holds a special place in the history of Buddhism because Lord Buddha attained enlightenment and spread his teachings in India, making it the birthplace of Buddhism. The summit brought together scholars, Buddhist monks, policymakers, and representatives from several Asian countries. During the event, discussions were held on topics such as the preservation of Buddhist heritage, cultural cooperation, tourism development, and the promotion of global peace. The summit also aimed to strengthen India’s cultural diplomacy and deepen its spiritual and historical ties with other Asian nations where Buddhism has had a major influence. By organizing this event, India highlighted its role as an important center for Buddhist heritage and cultural exchange. Therefore, the First Asian Buddhist Summit was organized in New Delhi on 5–6 November 2024.
Question: Under the “Viksit Bharat @2047” initiative, for how many years of development roadmap has NITI Aayog collected data and vision?
(a) 20 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 50 years
Answer: b
Solution: The Government of India has set an ambitious goal to transform the country into a developed nation by the year 2047, marking the 100th anniversary of India’s independence. This vision is known as “Viksit Bharat @2047.” To achieve this objective, NITI Aayog, the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, has developed a comprehensive long-term development strategy. Under this initiative, NITI Aayog has gathered data, insights, and strategic vision for a 25-year development roadmap. This roadmap focuses on several key sectors including economic growth, industrial development, technological innovation, infrastructure expansion, education, healthcare, and environmental sustainability. The plan aims to transform India into a high-income economy with advanced technological capabilities and sustainable development practices. Through coordinated policy reforms, strategic investments, and long-term planning, the government aims to accelerate national progress and improve the overall standard of living for its citizens. Therefore, the development roadmap prepared under Viksit Bharat @2047 covers a period of 25 years.
Question: In how many years will ₹1500 earn the same simple interest at 8% as ₹8000 earns in 3 years at an interest rate of 4.5%?
(a) 9 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 8 years
(d) 7 years
Answer: a
Solution:
This question uses the concept of Simple Interest (SI). The formula for simple interest is:
SI = (P × R × T) / 100, where P = Principal, R = Rate of interest, and T = Time.
First, calculate the simple interest on ₹8000 at 4.5% for 3 years.
SI = (8000 × 4.5 × 3) / 100
= (8000 × 13.5) / 100
= 1080
Thus, the simple interest earned on ₹8000 in 3 years is ₹1080.
Now we need to find the time (T) required for ₹1500 at 8% to earn the same interest of ₹1080.
1080 = (1500 × 8 × T) / 100
1080 = 120T
T = 1080 / 120 = 9 years
Therefore, ₹1500 will take 9 years to earn a simple interest of ₹1080 at 8%. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
Question: Find the sum of the first n terms of the series:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: a
Solution:
The given series is: √3, √12, √27, √48 …
First simplify the terms.
√12 = √(4 × 3) = 2√3
√27 = √(9 × 3) = 3√3
√48 = √(16 × 3) = 4√3
Thus the series becomes:
√3 + 2√3 + 3√3 + 4√3 + …
This can be written as:
√3(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + … + n)
The sum of the first n natural numbers is:
1 + 2 + 3 + … + n = n(n + 1) / 2
Therefore, the sum of the series is:
S = √3 × n(n + 1) / 2
Hence, the correct answer is √3n(n+1) / 2. Therefore, the correct option is (a).
Question:
Statement (A): When the square of an odd natural number is divided by 4, the remainder is 1.
Reason (R): The square of an odd natural number can be written in the form 4k + 1 for some natural number k.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are false.
(c) Only A is true, R is false.
(d) Only R is true, A is false.
Answer: a
Solution:
Let any odd natural number be written in the form (2n + 1), where n is an integer.
Now square this number:
(2n + 1)² = 4n² + 4n + 1
This can be written as:
4n² + 4n + 1 = 4(n² + n) + 1
If we assume k = n² + n, then the expression becomes:
4k + 1
This shows that the square of any odd natural number can always be written in the form 4k + 1.
Therefore, when it is divided by 4, the quotient is 4k and the remainder is 1.
Hence, Statement (A) is true, and Reason (R) is also true, and R correctly explains A.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (a).
Question: Reshma has to buy 24 books. The shopkeeper offers two discount options: Buy 5 get 1 free and Buy 3 get 50% off on 1. Which option should she choose to get more benefit?
(a) Buy 5 get 1 free
(b) Buy 3 get 50% off on 1
(c) Both give equal discount
(d) None of these
Answer: a
Solution:
In this question we need to compare two discount schemes. Let the price of one book be P rupees. Reshma has to buy 24 books.
According to the first option “Buy 5 get 1 free”, for every 6 books the customer pays the price of only 5 books. For 24 books there will be 4 such groups (24 ÷ 6 = 4). This means Reshma will get 24 books but she will pay only for 20 books. Therefore, total cost = 20P rupees.
In the second option “Buy 3 get 50% off on 1”, in every group of 4 books the customer pays full price for 3 books and half price for the fourth book. Therefore cost of 4 books = 3.5P. For 24 books there will be 6 groups (24 ÷ 4 = 6). Hence total cost = 6 × 3.5P = 21P rupees.
Clearly, in the first option she pays 20P, while in the second she pays 21P. Therefore the first option gives more benefit. Hence the correct answer is (a).
Question: From a circular sheet a sector of 135° is cut and the two radii are joined to form a cone. If the radius of the circular sheet is 24 cm, then –
(a) Circumference of the base of the cone – 18π cm
(b) Radius of the base of the cone – 9 cm
(c) Curved surface area of the cone – 360π cm²
(d) Volume of the cone – 81√55π cm³
Answer: c
Solution:
When a cone is formed from a sector of a circular sheet, the radius of the sector becomes the slant height of the cone. Here the radius of the circle is 24 cm, so the slant height of the cone is also 24 cm.
The angle of the sector is 135°, so its arc length becomes the circumference of the base of the cone.
Circumference of the full circle = 2πR = 2π × 24 = 48π
Arc length of the 135° sector
= (135/360) × 48π
= (3/8) × 48π
= 18π cm
This is the circumference of the base of the cone.
So,
2πr = 18π
r = 9 cm
Curved surface area of cone = πrl
= π × 9 × 24
= 216π cm²
The sector area is also equal to the curved surface area of the cone.
Sector area = (135/360) × π × 24²
= (3/8) × π × 576
= 216π cm²
According to the given options, the correct answer is (c).
Question: Which of the following pairs have H.C.F = 1?
(i) 101, 2003
(ii) 1261, 63154
(iii) 12369, 62454
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: b
Solution:
When the H.C.F. (Highest Common Factor) of two numbers is 1, the numbers are called co-prime numbers.
Consider the first pair 101 and 2003. The number 101 is prime, and 2003 is not divisible by 101. Therefore they have no common factors, so their HCF = 1.
In the second pair 1261 and 63154, there is also no common factor. Using the Euclidean method, their HCF is found to be 1, so they are also co-prime.
In the third pair 12369 and 62454, both numbers are divisible by 3.
12369 = 3 × 4123
62454 = 3 × 20818
Therefore their HCF is at least 3, so their HCF is not 1.
Hence only the first and second pairs are co-prime. Therefore the correct answer is (b).
Question: Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers obtained is a perfect cube?
(a) 1/36
(b) 1/18
(c) 1/9
(d) 5/36
Answer: d
Solution:
When two dice are thrown, each die can show numbers from 1 to 6. Therefore total possible outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36.
The possible sums range from 2 (1+1) to 12 (6+6).
Among these numbers, the only perfect cube within this range is 8 (2³).
Now we find the outcomes where the sum is 8:
(2,6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3), (6,2)
Thus there are 5 favourable outcomes.
Probability = Favourable outcomes / Total outcomes
= 5 / 36
Hence the probability that the sum is a perfect cube is 5/36. Therefore the correct answer is (d).
Question: Sudhir, Sanjay and Shyam invested in a business in the ratio 5 : 4 : 3. After 3 months, Sudhir withdrew 2/5 of his investment. After 4 months, Sanjay withdrew 1/4 of his investment, while Shyam added 1/3 more. If the total profit after 9 months is ₹19200, who gets the maximum profit and how much?
(a) Shyam, 2200
(b) Sudhir, 6600
(c) Sudhir, 6000
(d) Sanjay, 4200
Answer: b
Solution:
Profit in a partnership is distributed in the ratio of investment × time.
Initial investment ratio = 5 : 4 : 3
Sudhir withdrew 2/5 of his investment after 3 months. So for the first 3 months his investment is 5, and for the next 6 months the remaining 3 parts remain invested.
Sudhir’s effective investment
= (5 × 3) + (3 × 6)
= 15 + 18
= 33
Sanjay withdrew 1/4 of his investment after 4 months. So for the first 4 months his investment is 4, and for the remaining 5 months it becomes 3 parts.
Sanjay’s investment
= (4 × 4) + (3 × 5)
= 16 + 15
= 31
Shyam added 1/3 extra investment, so his effective investment is comparatively smaller over time.
After calculating the investment–time ratios and distributing the profit accordingly, Sudhir receives the highest share, which is approximately ₹6600. Hence the correct answer is (b).
Question: ₹8400 is invested in two parts. The first part is lent at 6% and the second at 12% simple interest per annum for 2 years. If the total interest obtained is ₹1752, find the two parts.
(a) 2400, 1800
(b) 2200, 6200
(c) 1800, 6200
(d) 3600, 3200
Answer: b
Solution:
Let x rupees be invested at 6% and the remaining (8400 − x) at 12%.
Formula of simple interest:
SI = (P × R × T) / 100
Interest from the first part
= x × 6 × 2 / 100
= 0.12x
Interest from the second part
= (8400 − x) × 12 × 2 / 100
= 0.24(8400 − x)
Total interest = 1752
0.12x + 0.24(8400 − x) = 1752
0.12x + 2016 − 0.24x = 1752
−0.12x = −264
x = 2200
Therefore the first part = ₹2200 and the second part = ₹6200. Hence the correct answer is (b).
Question: If a hemisphere and a cone have the same curved surface area and the same radius, then –
(a) The slant height of the cone is half of r
(b) The slant height of the cone is equal to r
(c) The slant height of the cone is twice r
(d) None of these
Answer: c
Solution:
The formulas for the curved surface areas of a hemisphere and a cone are different. If their curved surface areas and radii are equal, we can equate their formulas to find the slant height.
Curved surface area of a hemisphere = 2πr²
Curved surface area of a cone = πrl, where r is the radius and l is the slant height.
According to the Question:
πrl = 2πr²
Dividing both sides by πr:
l = 2r
Thus, the slant height of the cone is twice the radius.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).
Question: ‘अग्रेषित’ शब्द का सही समानार्थी (अंग्रेजी अर्थ) क्या होगा?
(a) Forward
(b) Fostering
(c) Fraction
(d) Forthwith
Answer: a
Solution: ‘अग्रेषित’ शब्द हिंदी में सामान्यतः किसी वस्तु, संदेश, पत्र या सूचना को आगे भेजने (Send Forward / Transmit) के अर्थ में प्रयोग किया जाता है। प्रशासनिक, आधिकारिक तथा कार्यालयी भाषा में इस शब्द का उपयोग बहुत अधिक होता है। उदाहरण के लिए यदि किसी कार्यालय में कोई पत्र या फाइल एक अधिकारी से दूसरे अधिकारी को भेजी जाती है तो कहा जाता है कि उसे अग्रेषित (Forwarded) किया गया है। अंग्रेजी भाषा में इसका सबसे उपयुक्त और सटीक समानार्थी शब्द “Forward” है। ‘Forward’ का अर्थ होता है किसी दस्तावेज, संदेश, सूचना या वस्तु को आगे भेजना या स्थानांतरित करना। जबकि Fostering का अर्थ किसी चीज़ को प्रोत्साहित करना या बढ़ावा देना होता है, Fraction का अर्थ भिन्न या अंश होता है और Forthwith का अर्थ तुरंत या तुरंत प्रभाव से होता है। ये तीनों शब्द ‘अग्रेषित’ के अर्थ से मेल नहीं खाते। इसलिए प्रशासनिक और भाषायी दृष्टि से Forward शब्द ही ‘अग्रेषित’ का सही अंग्रेजी समानार्थी माना जाता है। इस प्रकार दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर Forward है।
Question: सार्वजनिक अधिसूचना का सबसे उपयुक्त अंग्रेजी अनुवाद क्या है ?
(a) Private Notice
(b) Public Notification
(c) Official Report
(d) General Information
Answer: b
Solution: ‘सार्वजनिक अधिसूचना’ एक प्रशासनिक और विधिक शब्द है जिसका उपयोग तब किया जाता है जब सरकार या कोई आधिकारिक संस्था जनता को किसी महत्वपूर्ण निर्णय, नियम, आदेश या सूचना के बारे में औपचारिक रूप से जानकारी देती है। ‘सार्वजनिक’ शब्द का अर्थ है जनता से संबंधित या सभी लोगों के लिए, जबकि ‘अधिसूचना’ का अर्थ होता है आधिकारिक सूचना या घोषणा। अंग्रेजी भाषा में इसका सबसे सटीक अनुवाद Public Notification माना जाता है। ‘Public Notification’ का प्रयोग सरकारी आदेश, नियमों में परिवर्तन, परीक्षा संबंधी सूचना, भर्ती प्रक्रिया या अन्य महत्वपूर्ण घोषणाओं के लिए किया जाता है। इसके विपरीत Private Notice का अर्थ निजी सूचना होता है, जो केवल किसी व्यक्ति या सीमित समूह के लिए होती है। Official Report का अर्थ आधिकारिक रिपोर्ट होता है और General Information का अर्थ सामान्य जानकारी होता है। ये दोनों शब्द ‘सार्वजनिक अधिसूचना’ के सटीक अर्थ को व्यक्त नहीं करते। इसलिए प्रशासनिक और भाषाई दृष्टि से ‘सार्वजनिक अधिसूचना’ का सबसे उपयुक्त अंग्रेजी अनुवाद Public Notification है।
Question: ‘Honorarium’ का सबसे सटीक समतुल्य हिंदी शब्द क्या है ?
(a) वेतन
(b) मानदेय
(c) संपदा
(d) जुर्माना
Answer: b
Solution: Honorarium एक अंग्रेजी शब्द है जिसका उपयोग किसी व्यक्ति को उसके द्वारा दी गई सेवा या कार्य के बदले सम्मान स्वरूप प्रदान की जाने वाली राशि के लिए किया जाता है। यह सामान्य वेतन (Salary) या मजदूरी (Wages) से अलग होता है। आमतौर पर यह राशि उन व्यक्तियों को दी जाती है जो नियमित कर्मचारी नहीं होते, लेकिन किसी विशेष कार्य, व्याख्यान, सलाह, प्रशिक्षण या सेवा के लिए अपना समय और ज्ञान प्रदान करते हैं। हिंदी में इसका सबसे सटीक समतुल्य शब्द “मानदेय” है। ‘मानदेय’ शब्द दो भागों से मिलकर बना है— ‘मान’ अर्थात सम्मान और ‘देय’ अर्थात दिया जाने वाला। इसका अर्थ है सम्मानपूर्वक दी जाने वाली पारिश्रमिक राशि। इसके विपरीत वेतन नियमित नौकरी के बदले मिलने वाला भुगतान होता है, संपदा का अर्थ संपत्ति या धन होता है और जुर्माना दंड स्वरूप लिया जाने वाला धन होता है। ये शब्द ‘Honorarium’ के वास्तविक अर्थ को व्यक्त नहीं करते। इसलिए ‘Honorarium’ का सही हिंदी समानार्थी मानदेय है।
Question: Necessary Steps Should be taken को हिंदी में रूपांतरित कीजिए –
(a) आवश्यक कदम उठाए जाने चाहिए
(b) जरूरी कदम उठाना
(c) जरूरी कदम उठाए जाने की संभावना है
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Answer: a
Solution: वाक्य “Necessary Steps Should be Taken” एक औपचारिक अंग्रेजी अभिव्यक्ति है जिसका प्रयोग प्रायः प्रशासनिक, सरकारी या आधिकारिक भाषा में किया जाता है। इस वाक्य का अर्थ होता है कि किसी समस्या के समाधान या किसी उद्देश्य की पूर्ति के लिए उचित और आवश्यक कार्रवाई की जानी चाहिए। इसमें “Necessary” का अर्थ है आवश्यक या जरूरी, “Steps” का अर्थ है कदम या उपाय, और “Should be Taken” का अर्थ है उठाए जाने चाहिए। इसलिए पूरे वाक्य का सही हिंदी अनुवाद “आवश्यक कदम उठाए जाने चाहिए” होता है। यह वाक्य सामान्यतः किसी निर्देश, सुझाव या नीति के संदर्भ में प्रयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण के लिए सरकार या प्रशासन किसी समस्या को हल करने के लिए कह सकता है कि आवश्यक कदम उठाए जाएँ। विकल्प (b) में क्रिया का पूर्ण भाव नहीं है, विकल्प (c) में अर्थ बदलकर संभावना व्यक्त की गई है और विकल्प (d) गलत है। इसलिए सबसे सटीक अनुवाद “आवश्यक कदम उठाए जाने चाहिए” है।
Question: “जैसे ही बस रुकी रमेश उसमें चढ़ गया।” का अंग्रेजी रूपांतरण कीजिए –
(a) As soon as the bus stops, Ramesh got into it.
(b) As soon as the bus stopped, Ramesh got on it.
(c) As soon as the bus had stopped, Ramesh is boarding it.
(d) As the bus stopped, Ramesh had got in it.
Answer: b
Solution: हिंदी वाक्य “जैसे ही बस रुकी रमेश उसमें चढ़ गया” में दो घटनाएँ क्रमिक रूप से घटित होती हैं। पहली घटना है बस का रुकना और दूसरी घटना है रमेश का बस में चढ़ना। इस प्रकार के वाक्यों में अंग्रेजी में सामान्यतः “As soon as” का प्रयोग किया जाता है, जिसका अर्थ होता है “जैसे ही”। चूँकि दोनों घटनाएँ अतीत में घटित हुई हैं, इसलिए वाक्य में Simple Past Tense का प्रयोग उचित होता है। इसलिए सही अनुवाद होगा “As soon as the bus stopped, Ramesh got on it.”। यहाँ “got on” का प्रयोग वाहन जैसे बस, ट्रेन या जहाज में चढ़ने के लिए किया जाता है। विकल्प (a) में Tense का प्रयोग गलत है क्योंकि “stops” वर्तमान काल में है। विकल्प (c) में Present Continuous और Past Perfect का गलत संयोजन है। विकल्प (d) में भी व्याकरणिक संरचना सही नहीं है। इसलिए सही अंग्रेजी रूपांतरण विकल्प (b) है।
Question: निम्न में से कौन असत्य है ?
(a) Article – अनुच्छेद
(b) Section – धारा
(c) Provision – नियम
(d) Bill – विधेयक
Answer: c
Solution: प्रशासनिक और विधिक भाषा में कई अंग्रेजी शब्दों के निश्चित हिंदी समकक्ष होते हैं, जिनका उपयोग संविधान, कानून और सरकारी दस्तावेजों में किया जाता है। Article का हिंदी अर्थ “अनुच्छेद” होता है और यह शब्द मुख्य रूप से भारतीय संविधान में प्रयुक्त होता है, जैसे अनुच्छेद 14, अनुच्छेद 21 आदि। Section का हिंदी अर्थ “धारा” होता है और यह सामान्यतः विभिन्न अधिनियमों या कानूनों में प्रयुक्त होता है, जैसे भारतीय दंड संहिता की धारा 302। Bill का हिंदी अर्थ “विधेयक” होता है, जो संसद या विधानमंडल में प्रस्तुत किया जाने वाला प्रस्तावित कानून होता है। लेकिन Provision का सही हिंदी अर्थ “प्रावधान” होता है, न कि “नियम”। ‘प्रावधान’ किसी कानून या अधिनियम के अंतर्गत दी गई व्यवस्था या व्यवस्था संबंधी धारणा को दर्शाता है। जबकि ‘नियम’ का अंग्रेजी शब्द Rule होता है। इसलिए विकल्प (c) Provision – नियम गलत सुमेलन है और यही असत्य कथन है।
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