BPSC AEDO 14 April 2026 Paper II (General Studies) Question and Answer Key Pdf Download -

Table of Contents

BPSC AEDO 14 April 2026 Paper II General Studies in English

यह Original Question Paper और Answer Key नहीं है यह एक sample paper है जो Examdhara के द्वारा Exam Patten को समझने के लिए बनाया गया है, Original Question Answer 15.04.2026 रात 10 बजे तक अपलोड कर दिया जायेगा

Question: Meerabai became a follower of whom?
(a) Surdas
(b) Dadu Dayal
(c) Raidas
(d) Ravidas
Answer: d
Solution:
Meerabai was one of the most prominent Bhakti poet-saints of medieval India, whose life exemplifies the core principles of the Bhakti movement. She was born into a Rajput royal family but renounced worldly comforts and social constraints to follow the path of devotion. Meerabai was deeply devoted to Lord Krishna, but her spiritual guide is believed to have been Saint Ravidas.
Ravidas belonged to a lower caste, which was significant in the social context of that time, as it challenged the rigid caste hierarchy. Meerabai’s acceptance of Ravidas as her guru reflects the Bhakti movement’s emphasis on social equality and pure devotion to God beyond caste distinctions.
Her compositions express deep devotion, surrender, longing, and a subtle rebellion against social norms. She demonstrated that true devotion transcends barriers of caste, class, and gender.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding taxes in the Chola period:
A. Vetti was a type of tax collected in cash.
B. Kadamai was a land revenue tax.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Solution:
The Chola period in South India is known for its highly organized administration and advanced economic system. The taxation structure during this time was elaborate and well-documented through inscriptions.
Vetti was not a monetary tax; rather, it was a form of forced labor imposed on peasants and common people. This labor was used for public works such as construction, irrigation, and maintenance of infrastructure. Therefore, statement A is incorrect.
On the other hand, Kadamai was a form of land revenue tax levied on agricultural production and served as a major source of state income. The Chola administration had various types of taxes, including trade and irrigation taxes, which strengthened the economic system.
Thus, only statement B is correct.

Question: Kabir was born in which family?
(a) Barber
(b) Weaver
(c) Cobbler
(d) Farmer
Answer: b
Solution:
Kabir was a great saint, poet, and social reformer of medieval India, who was born in a Muslim weaver (Julaha) family. He grew up in or around Varanasi and strongly opposed religious orthodoxy, superstition, and caste discrimination prevalent in society.
Kabir rejected both rigid Hindu rituals and orthodox Islamic practices. He preached the idea of a formless, omnipresent God and emphasized inner devotion as the true path to spirituality.
His teachings were expressed in simple and powerful couplets (dohas), which were easily understood by the common people. Kabir’s life and philosophy represent a form of the Bhakti movement that emphasized equality, love, and truth above all.
His birth in a weaver family also signifies that great ideas and spiritual wisdom are not confined to any particular caste or social class.

Question: Who started the Langar system?
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Guru Angad
(c) Guru Gobind Singh
(d) Guru Ramdas
Answer: a
Solution:
The Langar system was initiated by Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism. It is one of the most important social and religious practices in Sikh tradition. The primary aim of Langar is to promote equality, brotherhood, and the spirit of service (seva).
In this system, people from all backgrounds—regardless of caste, religion, gender, or social status—sit together and share a common meal. This was a revolutionary concept in a time when caste-based discrimination was deeply rooted in society.
Guru Nanak emphasized that all human beings are equal and are children of the same God. Later Sikh Gurus further developed and institutionalized this tradition, making it an integral part of Sikhism.
Even today, Langar is served in every Gurudwara, where thousands of people receive free meals daily. It stands as a powerful symbol of equality, humility, and community service.

Question: Who composed Sanskrit grammar?
(a) Jaimini
(b) Bhrigu
(c) Panini
(d) Kapil
Answer: c
Solution:
Panini was a great ancient Indian grammarian who systematically presented the grammar of the Sanskrit language. His famous work, Ashtadhyayi, is the foundational text of Sanskrit grammar, consisting of around 4000 sutras that explain linguistic rules in a highly scientific and logical manner. Panini’s work is considered extremely important not only in India but also globally in the field of linguistics.
His grammatical system is so precise and well-structured that it continues to influence modern linguistic studies. He clearly defined rules related to phonetics, word formation, and sentence structure.
Panini’s contribution reflects the advanced level of knowledge and scientific thinking in ancient India. His work standardized Sanskrit, making it a dominant language for literature, religion, and philosophy.

Question: In which language did Swami Mahavira deliver his teachings?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Pali
(c) Prakrit
(d) Kharosthi
Answer: c
Solution:
Swami Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, delivered his teachings in Prakrit language to make them accessible to the common people. During that time, Sanskrit was mainly used by scholars and the elite, and was not easily understood by the general population.
Mahavira aimed to spread his teachings among all sections of society, especially the common people, so he chose a simple and widely spoken language. Prakrit was commonly used by traders, farmers, women, and lower sections of society, making it an effective medium for communication.
His teachings were based on principles such as non-violence (ahimsa), truth (satya), non-stealing (asteya), celibacy (brahmacharya), and non-possession (aparigraha), which needed to be conveyed in a simple manner for practical application.
Additionally, Jain scriptures known as Agamas were also composed in Prakrit, which shows its importance in Jain tradition.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding Jainism:
A. Mainly traders supported Jainism.
B. Generally, farmers did not accept Jainism.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
The spread of Jainism was influenced by different social groups. The trader (merchant) class strongly supported Jainism because its principles aligned well with their lifestyle and profession. Values such as non-violence, truthfulness, and non-possession promoted honesty, trust, and ethical conduct in trade, making Jainism appealing to them.
On the other hand, it was difficult for farmers to strictly follow Jain principles, especially non-violence. Agricultural activities often involve harming living organisms such as insects and small creatures, which goes against the core principle of ahimsa. Therefore, it was not practical for farmers to fully adopt Jainism.
Jainism had a stronger presence in urban and commercial communities, while its influence in rural areas remained relatively limited due to socio-economic factors.
Thus, both statements are correct.

Question: The rules framed for Buddhist monks living in the Sangha are compiled in which text?
(a) Sutta Pitaka
(b) Abhidhamma Pitaka
(c) Bhagavati Sutra
(d) Vinaya Pitaka
Answer: d
Solution:
The sacred texts of Buddhism are collectively known as the Tripitaka, which consists of three parts: Sutta Pitaka, Vinaya Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka. Among these, the Vinaya Pitaka specifically deals with the rules and discipline of the Buddhist monastic community (Sangha).
It contains detailed guidelines regarding the conduct of monks and nuns, their daily routines, codes of discipline, and the system of penalties for violations. These rules were essential to maintain order and discipline within the Sangha.
The Buddhist Sangha was a well-organized institution, and individuals who joined it were required to strictly follow these rules to remain focused on their spiritual path and to set an example for society.
While the Sutta Pitaka contains the teachings of the Buddha and the Abhidhamma Pitaka deals with philosophical analysis, the Vinaya Pitaka exclusively focuses on monastic discipline.

Question: Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Buddhist Sangha?
(a) Separate arrangements existed for men and women in the Sangha.
(b) All people could join the Sangha.
(c) Children needed permission from their parents to join the Sangha.
(d) Married women required permission from their parents to join the Sangha.
Answer: d
Solution:
The Buddhist Sangha was a disciplined religious institution with clearly defined rules for admission and conduct. Separate arrangements were made for men and women to maintain discipline and decorum, so statement (a) is correct. The Sangha was open to people from different social backgrounds, and it was not restricted by caste or class, making statement (b) correct.
For children, parental consent was necessary before joining the Sangha to ensure that family responsibilities and social order were not disrupted, so statement (c) is also correct.
However, in the case of married women, permission was required from their husbands rather than their parents. This reflects the social structure of that time, where a married woman was considered part of her husband’s family.
These rules are elaborately mentioned in the Vinaya Pitaka, which governed the organization and discipline of the Sangha. Thus, statement (d) is incorrect.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding Mahayana:
A. It was related to Buddhism.
B. It promoted idol worship in Buddhism.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Answer: c
Solution:
Mahayana is an important sect of Buddhism that developed over time within the broader Buddhist tradition. In early Buddhism (often referred to as Hinayana), the Buddha was regarded as a great teacher, and idol worship was not emphasized.
However, in the Mahayana tradition, the perception of the Buddha evolved. He came to be seen not just as a teacher but also as a divine figure. As a result, the practice of idol worship gained prominence, and statues of the Buddha began to be widely created and worshipped.
Mahayana also introduced the concept of the Bodhisattva, emphasizing compassion and the idea that one should strive for the liberation of all beings, not just oneself. This made Mahayana more appealing to the masses and contributed to its spread across various regions.
Thus, both statements are correct.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding Bodhisattvas:
A. They practiced in isolation after attaining knowledge.
B. Worship of Bodhisattvas was quite popular.
C. They became popular outside India in countries like Japan, China, and South Korea.

(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
(c) A, B and C
(d) Only A
Answer: b
Solution:
The concept of Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana Buddhism. A Bodhisattva is one who has attained the capability for enlightenment but chooses to delay their own nirvana in order to help others achieve liberation.
Statement A is incorrect because Bodhisattvas do not withdraw into isolation for personal salvation. Instead, they remain engaged with society, guiding others and alleviating suffering. Their goal is collective welfare rather than individual liberation.
Statement B is correct, as the worship of Bodhisattvas became highly popular in Mahayana Buddhism. Figures like Avalokiteshvara and Manjushri were widely revered.
Statement C is also correct, as the concept of Bodhisattvas spread beyond India along with Buddhism and became especially popular in East Asian countries such as China, Japan, and Korea.
Thus, only statements B and C are correct.

Question: Arrange the following Chinese Buddhist travelers to India in chronological order:
(a) Xuanzang, Faxian, Yijing
(b) Faxian, Yijing, Xuanzang
(c) Xuanzang, Yijing, Faxian
(d) Faxian, Xuanzang, Yijing
Answer: d
Solution:
Chinese Buddhist travelers played a crucial role in documenting the history, society, and culture of ancient India. Among them, Faxian, Xuanzang, and Yijing are the most notable.
Faxian was the earliest among them and visited India during the 5th century CE (399–414 CE). His accounts provide valuable information about the Gupta period and the condition of Buddhism at that time.
Xuanzang visited India in the 7th century CE (629–645 CE) during the reign of Harshavardhana. He studied at Nalanda University and provided detailed descriptions of Indian society, education, and administration.
Yijing came later in the late 7th century CE and focused mainly on Buddhist practices, monastic life, and education.
Thus, the correct chronological order is Faxian → Xuanzang → Yijing.

Question: What was the name of the ambassador sent by the Greek ruler Seleucus Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya?
(a) Hegesias
(b) Xuanzang
(c) Deimachus
(d) Megasthenes
Answer: d
Solution:
During the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, diplomatic relations were established between India and the Greek world. After the campaigns of Alexander, Seleucus Nicator, one of his successors, entered into a treaty with Chandragupta Maurya.
As part of this diplomatic relationship, Seleucus sent Megasthenes as his ambassador to the Mauryan court. Megasthenes was a Greek historian and diplomat who stayed in Pataliputra, the capital of the Mauryan Empire.
He wrote a famous work called Indica, which provides detailed information about the administration, society, economy, and culture of Mauryan India. His descriptions of the city, governance, and social structure are considered valuable historical sources.
Other options like Xuanzang and Deimachus belong to different contexts and periods.
Thus, Megasthenes was the ambassador sent by Seleucus Nicator.

Question: Which of the following is the correct chronological order of foreign invaders in India?
(a) Kushans, Indo-Parthians, Shakas, Indo-Greeks
(b) Indo-Greeks, Kushans, Shakas, Indo-Parthians
(c) Indo-Greeks, Shakas, Indo-Parthians, Kushans
(d) Indo-Greeks, Indo-Parthians, Shakas, Kushans
Answer: c
Solution:
In ancient Indian history, several foreign groups entered India at different times and influenced its political, cultural, and economic life. Understanding their correct chronological order is important.
The Indo-Greeks were the earliest among them, who entered north-western India after the invasion of Alexander and established their rule in several regions.
They were followed by the Shakas (Scythians), who migrated from Central Asia and established their dominance in north-western and western India.
After them came the Indo-Parthians, who controlled parts of north-western India for a brief period.
Finally, the Kushans emerged as a powerful empire, with rulers like Kanishka, who played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism.
Thus, the correct order is Indo-Greeks → Shakas → Indo-Parthians → Kushans.

Question: Ashoka appointed officials to spread moral teachings among the people. What were these officials called?
(a) Durgapala
(b) Dhamma Mahamatra
(c) Atavika
(d) Mahamatra
Answer: b
Solution:
Emperor Ashoka, one of the greatest rulers of the Mauryan dynasty, not only expanded his empire but also promoted moral and ethical values. After the Kalinga War, he adopted Buddhism and introduced the policy of “Dhamma,” which emphasized values like non-violence, compassion, tolerance, and moral living.
To propagate these ideals among the people, Ashoka appointed special officials known as Dhamma Mahamatras. These officials traveled across different regions to educate people about ethical conduct and social harmony.
Their responsibilities were not limited to religious preaching; they also worked for the welfare of weaker sections, ensured justice, and promoted harmony among different religious communities.
Thus, Dhamma Mahamatras played a crucial role in implementing Ashoka’s vision of a morally guided administration.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding Ashoka:
A. Ashoka was the first ruler to communicate his message to people through inscriptions.
B. Most of Ashoka’s inscriptions are in Kharosthi script.
C. Ashoka described the Kalinga War in one of his inscriptions.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only A and C
(d) A, B and C
Answer: c
Solution:
Ashoka’s reign is significant in Indian history, especially because of his inscriptions. Statement A is correct as he was the first ruler to systematically use inscriptions on rocks and pillars to communicate his policies and ideas directly to the public. These inscriptions promoted the principles of Dhamma such as non-violence, compassion, and tolerance.
Statement B is incorrect because most of Ashoka’s inscriptions were written in the Brahmi script. The Kharosthi script was used only in the north-western regions. Hence, it is incorrect to say that most inscriptions were in Kharosthi.
Statement C is correct as Ashoka mentioned the Kalinga War in his 13th Rock Edict. He expressed deep remorse for the destruction caused by the war and subsequently adopted a policy of peace and Dhamma.
Thus, only A and C are correct.

Question: Match the rebels of the Revolt of 1857 with their respective regions:

List I (Rebel)	List II (Region)
A. Nana Saheb	a. Lucknow
B. Birjis Qadr	b. Kanpur
C. Rani Avantibai Lodhi	c. Ramgarh
D. Rani Lakshmibai	d. Jhansi

Choose the correct answer:
(a) A–a, B–b, C–c, D–d
(b) A–c, B–b, C–a, D–d
(c) A–b, B–a, C–d, D–c
(d) A–b, B–a, C–c, D–d

Answer: d

Solution:
The Revolt of 1857 was a major uprising against British rule, involving leaders from different regions. Nana Saheb was associated with Kanpur, where he led the rebellion and tried to revive the Maratha authority.
Birjis Qadr, the son of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, was declared the ruler in Lucknow by the rebels.
Rani Avantibai Lodhi was the queen of Ramgarh in central India and fought bravely against the British to defend her kingdom.
Rani Lakshmibai was the queen of Jhansi and one of the most prominent leaders of the revolt, known for her courage and leadership.
Thus, the correct matching is A–b, B–a, C–c, D–d.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding the rebels of 1857:
A. Bahadur Shah Zafar was exiled to Rangoon with his wife, where he died in 1861.
B. Rani Lakshmibai died fighting the British in 1858.
C. Tantia Tope continued guerrilla warfare in central India with the help of tribals and peasants.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and B
(d) A, B and C

Answer: b

Solution:
After the Revolt of 1857, the fate of various rebel leaders became significant in Indian history. Statement A is incorrect because although Bahadur Shah Zafar was exiled to Rangoon, he died in 1862, not in 1861. Hence, this statement contains a factual error.
Statement B is correct as Rani Lakshmibai fought bravely against the British and died in 1858 near Gwalior. She is remembered as one of the greatest symbols of resistance and courage in India’s freedom struggle.
Statement C is also correct because Tantia Tope continued his resistance even after the suppression of the revolt. He adopted guerrilla warfare tactics in the forests of central India and received support from local tribals and peasants, which helped him sustain the struggle for a longer period.
Thus, only statements B and C are correct.

Question: Consider the following changes made by the British after the Revolt of 1857—
A. All powers of the East India Company were transferred to the British Crown and a new council called the India Council was formed.
B. The Doctrine of Lapse was abolished and Indian rulers were allowed to adopt heirs.
C. The British decided to respect Indian religions and social customs.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and B
(d) A, B and C
Answer: d
Solution:
The Revolt of 1857 was a major shock for the British, after which they made significant changes in their administrative, political, and social policies. The aim of these changes was to reduce Indian dissatisfaction and stabilize their rule.
A. This statement is correct. Through the Government of India Act, 1858, all powers of the East India Company were transferred to the British Crown. Along with this, an ‘India Council’ was formed to assist in the administration of India.
B. This statement is also correct. The British abolished the Doctrine of Lapse, which had been implemented by Lord Dalhousie. Now Indian rulers were allowed to adopt heirs, which stopped the process of annexing their states into the British Empire.
C. This statement is also correct. One of the major causes of the revolt was British interference in Indian religious and social traditions. Therefore, the British later adopted a policy of non-interference and decided to respect Indian customs and beliefs.

Question: “New Jewel Movement” was located in which country?
(a) Trinidad and Tobago
(b) Grenada
(c) Barbados
(d) Dominica
Answer: b
Solution:
The New Jewel Movement (NJM) was a Marxist–Leninist political organization located in the Caribbean island country of Grenada. It was established in 1973 under the leadership of Maurice Bishop. The full form of NJM was “New Joint Endeavor for Welfare, Education, and Liberation,” and its main objective was to establish social justice, promote education, and ensure economic equality.
Grenada was a British colony at that time, and even before gaining independence in 1974, the movement had strengthened its ideology. In 1979, NJM came to power through a successful revolution and established the “People’s Revolutionary Government.” This government attempted to implement socialist policies, such as improvements in education and healthcare.
However, in 1983, internal conflicts led to the assassination of Maurice Bishop, resulting in political instability. Following this, the United States intervened militarily in Grenada and ended this government.
Thus, the New Jewel Movement was based in Grenada, which is important for understanding Cold War politics and regional movements.

Question: The “Guinea-Bissau War of Independence” took place during which period?
(a) 1963 – 1971
(b) 1963 – 1972
(c) 1963 – 1973
(d) 1963 – 1974
Answer: d
Solution:
The independence struggle of Guinea-Bissau took place between 1963 and 1974, which is an important example of resistance against colonial rule in Africa. This war was fought between Portugal and the “African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde (PAIGC).” The movement was led by revolutionary leaders like Amilcar Cabral, who adopted guerrilla warfare strategies.
This conflict is also referred to as “Portugal’s Vietnam” because it lasted for a long time and involved heavy use of resources. Countries like Cuba and the Soviet Union supported the freedom fighters, linking the conflict with Cold War politics.
In 1974, the “Carnation Revolution” took place in Portugal, after which the government decided to grant independence to its colonies. As a result, Guinea-Bissau gained independence, followed by Cape Verde.
This struggle symbolizes the end of colonial rule and the rise of African nationalism.

Question: Haiti gained independence in 1804 from which country?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Portugal
Answer: b
Solution:
Haiti gained independence in 1804 from France, and it became the first nation in history to achieve independence through a slave revolt. Haiti was previously a French colony known as Saint-Domingue, which was considered the richest colony of its time due to large-scale production of sugar and coffee. African slaves were forced to work under harsh conditions on these plantations.
The ideals of the French Revolution (1789)—liberty, equality, and fraternity—inspired the people of Haiti. Slaves and free people of color began a revolt led by leaders such as Jean-Jacques Dessalines, Alexandre Petion, and Henry Christophe.
Eventually, in 1804, the rebels decisively defeated the French army and declared Haiti independent. This event was not only a major victory against colonialism but also inspired movements against slavery worldwide.
Haiti’s independence proved that organized struggle and determination could end colonial rule.

Question: The “Shah and People Revolution” took place in which country?
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Turkey
Answer: a
Solution:
The “Shah and People Revolution,” also known as the “White Revolution,” was a series of reforms launched in Iran in 1963 by Shah Mohammad Reza Pahlavi. Its aim was to modernize Iran and weaken traditional power structures.
Under this revolution, several major reforms were introduced, including land reforms, promotion of industrial growth, women’s voting rights, expansion of education and healthcare, and development of infrastructure. The Shah believed that these reforms would make the country modern and powerful.
However, these reforms also faced opposition, especially from religious leaders and traditional groups. They believed that these changes were promoting Western influence and weakening Islamic traditions.
This dissatisfaction eventually led to the Iranian Revolution of 1979, which ended the Shah’s rule.
Thus, the “Shah and People Revolution” was an important phase in Iran’s modernization and political transformation.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding agricultural expansion during the colonial period in India—
A. The British directly encouraged the production of commercial crops.
B. The colonial state considered forests to be unproductive.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
During the colonial period, the agricultural system of India underwent significant changes, mainly to serve British economic interests. The first statement (A) is correct because the British encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, cotton, sugarcane, and wheat. The demand for these crops increased rapidly in Europe due to the Industrial Revolution, which required raw materials and food grains. Indian farmers were pushed towards cultivating these crops, leading to changes in the traditional agricultural system.
The second statement (B) is also correct. In the early phase of colonial rule, the British believed that forests were unproductive and should be converted into agricultural land. Their aim was to generate maximum revenue from land. This led to large-scale deforestation and expansion of cultivated land.
Between 1880 and 1920, there was a significant increase in cultivated area as a result of these policies.
Thus, both statements are correct.

Question: Consider the following statements—
A. The emperor of Russia was called ‘Czar’.
B. Before the Bolshevik Revolution, ‘Duma’ was the Russian Parliament.
C. The term ‘Soviet’ means a council of workers.

(a) Only A
(b) Only A and B
(c) Only A and C
(d) A, B and C
Answer: d
Solution:
In Russia, until the early 20th century, there existed an autocratic form of government in which the emperor was called the ‘Czar’. The Czar enjoyed immense power without any constitutional limitation, so statement A is correct.
After the Russian Revolution of 1905, due to public pressure, Czar Nicholas II introduced some reforms, including the establishment of a parliament called the ‘Duma’. Although it was not fully independent and remained under the influence of the Czar, it is still considered Russia’s first parliament. Thus, statement B is correct.
The term ‘Soviet’ means a council, especially of workers, soldiers, and peasants. During the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917, such soviets were formed across Russia, and they played a crucial role in centralizing power.
Thus, all three statements are correct.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding Mustafa Kemal Pasha—
A. He led a nationalist movement against the humiliating treaty imposed after World War I.
B. He transformed Turkey into a republic.
C. He reinstated the Caliphate.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and B
(d) Only A and C
Answer: c
Solution:
After World War I, Turkey (Ottoman Empire) was forced to accept the humiliating Treaty of Sèvres, under which the Turkish nation itself was divided into many parts and shared among allied powers. This created strong resentment among nationalist Turks. Mustafa Kemal Pasha led a nationalist movement against this treaty and forced the allied powers to renegotiate, so statement A is correct.
He then established a nationalist government, defeated foreign forces, and declared Turkey a republic in 1923. He also initiated major modernization reforms. Thus, statement B is correct.
Statement C is incorrect because Mustafa Kemal Pasha abolished the Caliphate in 1924 instead of reinstating it. His aim was to make Turkey a secular and modern nation.
Thus, only A and B are correct.

Question: Consider the following statements—
A. The Monroe Doctrine pertains to Latin America.
B. The Meiji Restoration took place in Japan.

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
The Monroe Doctrine was declared in 1823 by U.S. President James Monroe, and its main objective was to prevent European powers from interfering in Latin America. According to this doctrine, any new colonization in the Western Hemisphere would not be tolerated. Thus, statement A is correct.
The Meiji Restoration took place in Japan in 1868, when the rule of the Shoguns ended and the authority of the Emperor was restored. This led to rapid modernization in Japan, including industrial growth, educational reforms, and military development. These changes transformed Japan into a powerful modern nation. Thus, statement B is also correct.
Hence, both statements are correct.

Question: The Munich Pact was related to the loss of sovereignty of which country?
(a) Poland
(b) Austria
(c) Czechoslovakia
(d) Hungary
Answer: c
Solution:
The Munich Pact was signed in 1938 between Germany, Britain, France, and Italy, under which the Sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia was handed over to Germany. This agreement is considered a major example of the policy of appeasement, where Britain and France tried to satisfy Hitler instead of opposing his aggressive policies.
Czechoslovakia was not even invited to the negotiations, which led to a direct violation of its sovereignty. Later, in 1939, Germany occupied the remaining parts of Czechoslovakia.
This event is considered one of the major causes of World War II, as it encouraged Hitler’s expansionist ambitions.
Thus, the Munich Pact was related to the loss of sovereignty of Czechoslovakia.

Question: The French Revolution began with the fall of which of the following?
(a) Bastille
(b) Commune
(c) Jacobin Club
(d) Pillnitz
Answer: a
Solution:
The French Revolution is considered to have begun with the storming of the Bastille on 14 July 1789 in Paris, France. The Bastille was a medieval fortress and prison that symbolized royal authority and tyranny in the heart of Paris. Although only seven prisoners were held there at the time, its fall became a powerful symbol of resistance against the monarchy.
The storming of the Bastille marked the beginning of widespread revolutionary activity. It was followed by major developments such as the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen.
The first stage of the revolution had already seen the revolt of the nobility and the formation of the National Assembly with the Tennis Court Oath.
Thus, the fall of the Bastille is regarded as the starting point of the French Revolution.

Question: What is the main difference between Pteridophytes and Bryophytes?
(a) Spermatozoids
(b) Archegonia
(c) Separate gametophytes
(d) Conducting system
Answer: d
Solution:
Bryophytes and Pteridophytes are both important groups of the plant kingdom, but the most significant difference between them lies in the presence or absence of a vascular (conducting) system. Bryophytes such as mosses and liverworts lack vascular tissues (xylem and phloem), so they transport water and nutrients through simple diffusion. Due to this, they are small in size and usually found in moist environments.
In contrast, Pteridophytes such as ferns possess a well-developed vascular system with xylem and phloem. This enables efficient transport of water and minerals, allowing them to grow larger and be more developed.
Other options like spermatozoids and archegonia are present in both groups, so they are not the main differences.
Thus, the presence of a conducting system is the fundamental difference between the two groups.

Question: Why are fruits not found in gymnosperm plants?
(a) They are seedless plants
(b) They are not pollinated
(c) They have no ovary
(d) Fertilization does not occur in them
Answer: c
Solution:
Gymnosperms are an important group of plants that produce seeds, but these seeds are “naked,” meaning they are not enclosed within a fruit. The main reason for this is the absence of an ovary in gymnosperms.
Fruits develop only when, after fertilization, the ovary transforms into a fruit. Since gymnosperms lack an ovary, fruit formation is not possible. Their seeds develop directly on structures like cones.
Pollination and fertilization do occur in gymnosperms, so options (b) and (d) are incorrect. They are not seedless plants, so option (a) is also incorrect.
Thus, the absence of an ovary is the main reason why fruits are not found in gymnosperms.

Question: Which of the following represents polyembryony?
(a) Formation of fruit without fertilization
(b) Development of more than one embryo from a single ovule
(c) Pollination is required for fruit formation
(d) None of these
Answer: b
Solution:
Polyembryony is a biological phenomenon in which more than one embryo develops from a single ovule. This occurs in both plants and some animals. In plants, it is commonly seen in citrus fruits like oranges.
In this process, multiple embryos may develop either from a single fertilized egg or from surrounding cells that also develop into embryos. As a result, a single seed can give rise to multiple plants.
Option (a) represents parthenocarpy, where fruit develops without fertilization. Option (c) refers to normal pollination processes, not polyembryony.
Polyembryony is important in agriculture because it can produce plants with identical traits.
Thus, the correct definition of polyembryony is the development of more than one embryo from a single ovule.

Question: Which of the following is not a true amphibian?
(a) Toad
(b) Salamander
(c) Tortoise
(d) Frog
Answer: c
Solution:
Amphibians are organisms that live part of their life in water and part on land. Examples include frog, toad, and salamander, which undergo a life cycle involving both aquatic and terrestrial stages.
Tortoise, however, is a reptile, not an amphibian. Reptiles have dry, scaly skin and lay eggs with hard shells. Tortoises may live on land or in water depending on the species, but they do not undergo the dual life stages seen in amphibians.
Amphibians have a larval stage in water and an adult stage on land, whereas reptiles do not show such a transformation.
Thus, toad, salamander, and frog are amphibians, while tortoise is a reptile.

Question: How many systemic arteries are present in reptiles?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: b
Solution:
The circulatory system of reptiles represents an intermediate stage between amphibians and mammals. Most reptiles have a three-chambered heart consisting of two atria and one ventricle.
They possess two systemic arteries (systemic aortae)—the right and left aorta. These arteries carry mixed blood (oxygenated and deoxygenated) to different parts of the body.
This structure makes reptiles more efficient than amphibians but less advanced than mammals and birds, which have a four-chambered heart.
Crocodiles are an exception, as they have a four-chambered heart, but generally reptiles have three chambers.
Thus, reptiles have two systemic arteries.

Question: What is the function of cones in the eye?
(a) Secretion and balance
(b) Vision in darkness
(c) Monocular vision
(d) Vision in bright light and color differentiation
Answer: d
Solution:
In the human eye, the retina contains two types of photoreceptor cells—rods and cones. Cones function best in bright light and are responsible for sharp vision and color detection.
They help in distinguishing different colors such as red, green, and blue. There are three types of cones, each sensitive to one of these primary colors, and their combination allows us to perceive a wide range of colors.
In contrast, rods are responsible for vision in low light or darkness but cannot detect colors, so option (b) is incorrect.
Cones are mainly concentrated in the fovea, the region of the retina responsible for the clearest vision.
Damage to cones can lead to color blindness.
Thus, cones are responsible for vision in bright light and color differentiation.

Question: Which structure forms the boundary between the middle ear and inner ear?
(a) Incus
(b) Oval window
(c) Pinna
(d) Tympanic membrane
Answer: b
Solution:
The human ear is divided into three parts—outer ear, middle ear, and inner ear. The boundary between the middle ear and inner ear is formed by the oval window.
The oval window is a membrane connected to the stapes bone of the middle ear and transmits vibrations into the fluid-filled inner ear. When sound waves enter the ear, they first vibrate the tympanic membrane (eardrum), and these vibrations are then passed through the ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes) to the oval window.
The oval window transfers these vibrations into the cochlea of the inner ear, where they are converted into nerve signals.
The tympanic membrane separates the outer and middle ear, while the pinna is part of the outer ear. Incus is one of the middle ear bones.
Thus, the oval window forms the boundary between the middle and inner ear.

Question: What is another name for the bulbourethral gland?
(a) Meibomian gland
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Perineal gland
(d) Cowper’s gland
Answer: d
Solution:
The bulbourethral gland is commonly known as Cowper’s gland. It is an important part of the male reproductive system. These are small, pea-sized glands located below the prostate gland near the urethra.
Their main function is to secrete an alkaline fluid before ejaculation. This fluid neutralizes the acidity in the urethra and creates a suitable environment for sperm.
It also helps in lubricating the urethra and maintaining sperm viability.
The Meibomian gland is found in the eyes, while the prostate gland has a different function in the reproductive system.
Thus, the bulbourethral gland is also known as Cowper’s gland.

Question: Which of the following diseases is transmitted through animal bites and saliva?
(a) Rabies
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Tetanus
(d) AIDS
Answer: a
Solution:
Rabies is a deadly viral disease that is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected animals or through their saliva. It commonly spreads to humans via dogs, bats, monkeys, and other wild animals.
After entering the body, the rabies virus affects the nervous system and eventually reaches the brain. Symptoms include fever, anxiety, hydrophobia (fear of water), muscle spasms, and confusion.
If not treated in time, rabies is almost always fatal. Therefore, immediate washing of the wound with soap and water and timely vaccination (anti-rabies vaccine) is extremely important after an animal bite.
Tuberculosis spreads through air, tetanus is caused by bacterial infection, and AIDS is caused by HIV and spreads through blood and sexual contact.
Thus, rabies is the disease transmitted through animal bites and saliva.

Question: Razia, the first female Muslim ruler, was the daughter of which Turkish ruler of India?
(a) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
(b) Qutbuddin Aibak
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Ghiyasuddin Balban
Answer: a
Solution:
Razia Sultan was the first female ruler of the Delhi Sultanate and was the daughter of Shamsuddin Iltutmish. Iltutmish was a powerful ruler of the Slave Dynasty who laid a strong foundation for the Delhi Sultanate. Recognizing Razia’s abilities, he nominated her as his successor, which was against the social norms of that time.
During her reign, Razia abandoned the purdah system and actively participated in administration like male rulers. She introduced administrative reforms and worked for the welfare of her people. However, her rule did not last long due to opposition from Turkish nobles.
Her reign is an important example of women empowerment in Indian history, showing that leadership is not dependent on gender.

Question: Kathak dance is originally associated with which of the following?
(a) Devotional singers
(b) Storytellers
(c) Stage poets
(d) Script writers
Answer: b
Solution:
Kathak is a major classical dance form of North India, and its origin is associated with storytelling. The word “Kathak” is derived from “Katha,” which means story. Initially, Kathak dancers performed in temples, narrating religious stories, especially those related to Lord Krishna, through dance and expressions.
These performers were known as “Kathavachaks” or storytellers, who used gestures, music, and rhythm to bring stories to life. Over time, Kathak evolved in the Mughal courts, where it gained technical refinement and new stylistic elements.
Its key features include fast footwork, spins (chakkars), expressions (bhava), and rhythmic complexity.
Thus, Kathak originated from the tradition of storytelling.

Question: Momentum of a body is defined as the product of which of the following?
(a) Weight and velocity
(b) Mass and length
(c) Weight and speed
(d) Mass and velocity
Answer: d
Solution:
Momentum is an important concept in physics that represents the quantity of motion of a body. It is defined as the product of mass and velocity. The formula is:
Momentum = Mass × Velocity
Momentum is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction.
If either the mass or velocity of an object increases, its momentum also increases. This concept is crucial in understanding Newton’s laws of motion and collision phenomena.
For example, a heavy object moving at high speed has greater momentum and can produce a stronger impact.
Thus, momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity.

Question: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures which of the following?
(a) Banking transactions
(b) Income of farmers
(c) Economic production
(d) Wealth of industrialists
Answer: c
Solution:
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is an important indicator used to measure the economic performance of a country. It represents the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a specific period, usually one year.
GDP is used to assess economic growth and development. It includes contributions from agriculture, industry, and the service sector.
An increase in GDP indicates economic growth, while a decline suggests economic slowdown.
However, GDP does not reflect income distribution, environmental conditions, or overall quality of life.
Thus, GDP measures the total economic production of a country.

Question: Nagzira Tiger Reserve is located in which state?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Goa
Answer: c
Solution:
Nagzira Tiger Reserve is an important wildlife sanctuary located in the state of Maharashtra. It is spread across the Gondia and Bhandara districts and is known for its rich biodiversity.
The reserve is home to a variety of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, bears, deer, and numerous bird species. It consists of dense forests and water bodies that provide a suitable habitat for wildlife.
Nagzira Tiger Reserve is also part of India’s Project Tiger initiative, which aims to increase the tiger population and protect their natural habitat.
This region plays a significant role in environmental conservation and maintaining ecological balance.
Thus, Nagzira Tiger Reserve is located in Maharashtra.

Question: ‘Janamsakhi’, meaning birth stories, are compositions related to the biographies of whom?
(a) Kabir Das
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Narsinh Mehta
(d) Guru Arjun Dev
Answer: b
Solution:
Janamsakhi literature is an important literary tradition in Sikhism that describes the life, teachings, and spiritual journeys (Udasis) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. The word “Janamsakhi” means “stories related to birth,” and it presents events of Guru Nanak’s life in narrative form.
These compositions describe his childhood, spiritual experiences, travels to various places, and his teachings in a simple and engaging style.
Janamsakhis not only have religious importance but also provide insights into the social and cultural life of that time.
They were initially developed through oral tradition and later compiled in written form. They often include miraculous and symbolic events that highlight Guru Nanak’s greatness and spirituality.
Thus, Janamsakhi literature is related to the biography of Guru Nanak.

Question: The Citizenship Act, ________ is associated with matters relating to acquisition, determination, and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
(a) 1955
(b) 1957
(c) 1951
(d) 1961
Answer: a
Solution:
The provisions related to Indian citizenship are given in Part II (Articles 5 to 11) of the Constitution, but to implement detailed rules regarding acquisition, determination, and termination of citizenship, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955.
This Act defines various ways of acquiring Indian citizenship, such as by birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory. It also specifies the grounds for termination of citizenship, including renunciation, termination, and deprivation.
From time to time, this Act has been amended, such as in 1986, 2003, 2005, and 2019, to update it according to changing circumstances.
This Act provides a clear and systematic framework for Indian citizenship, defining the rights and duties of citizens.
Thus, the Citizenship Act, 1955 forms the basis of all major provisions related to Indian citizenship.

Question: Which of the following is not a characteristic of ocean currents?
(a) They flow in a definite direction
(b) They have no definite direction
(c) They are streams of water
(d) They flow continuously on the ocean surface
Answer: b
Solution:
Ocean currents represent the continuous movement of seawater, which flows in a definite direction. These currents are caused by various factors such as winds, temperature differences, salinity, and the rotation of the Earth.
A key characteristic of ocean currents is that they move in a specific direction, maintaining global ocean circulation. Examples include the Gulf Stream and the Labrador Current.
These currents continuously flow on the ocean surface and significantly influence climate, such as keeping Europe relatively warmer due to warm currents.
Option (b) is incorrect because ocean currents do have a definite direction.
Thus, “they have no definite direction” is not a characteristic of ocean currents.

Question: What is the cause of common cold?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Virus
(d) Protozoa
Answer: c
Solution:
Common cold is a contagious disease mainly caused by viruses. The most common causative agent is the Rhinovirus, although other viruses may also be responsible.
It spreads through coughing, sneezing, or direct contact with an infected person. The virus enters the body through airborne droplets and affects the respiratory system.
Symptoms include runny nose, sneezing, sore throat, mild fever, and headache. It usually recovers within a few days but can be severe in individuals with weak immunity.
Antibiotics are not effective against common cold because it is caused by a virus, not bacteria.
Thus, the common cold is caused by a virus.

Question: Minamata disease affects which organ?
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Heart
(d) Brain
Answer: d
Solution:
Minamata disease is a serious neurological disorder caused by methyl mercury poisoning. It is named after Minamata city in Japan, where it was first observed on a large scale.
The disease spreads when people consume fish or seafood contaminated with mercury. The toxin enters the body and affects the nervous system.
Symptoms include tremors, vision problems, hearing impairment, difficulty in speaking, and in severe cases, paralysis.
Since it primarily affects the nervous system, the brain is the main organ impacted.
Thus, Minamata disease mainly affects the brain.

Question: How many bones are present in the human hand?
(a) 14
(b) 27
(c) 21
(d) 17
Answer: b
Solution:
The human hand is an important part of the body that enables fine motor functions. A single hand consists of 27 bones.
These include 8 carpal bones in the wrist, 5 metacarpal bones in the palm, and 14 phalanges in the fingers.
The arrangement of these bones provides flexibility and strength, allowing us to perform activities like gripping, writing, and handling objects.
The structure of the human hand is highly developed and complex, giving it greater functionality compared to other organisms.
Thus, a human hand contains a total of 27 bones.

Question: Which of the following is not a tributary of the Indus River?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Yamuna
(d) Ravi
Answer: c
Solution:
The Indus River is a major river system of India and Pakistan, with several tributaries including Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.
The Yamuna River is not a tributary of the Indus; instead, it is a major tributary of the Ganga River. It originates from Yamunotri in Uttarakhand and meets the Ganga at Prayagraj.
On the other hand, Jhelum, Chenab, and Ravi are all part of the Indus river system and eventually join the Indus.
Thus, Yamuna is not a tributary of the Indus River.

Question: NASA’s ________ spacecraft has been continuously studying Jupiter since 2016.
(a) Mars
(b) Juno
(c) James
(d) Pluto
Answer: b
Solution:
NASA’s Juno spacecraft has been studying the planet Jupiter since 2016. It was launched in 2011 and entered Jupiter’s orbit in 2016.
The main objective of the Juno mission is to study Jupiter’s structure, gravity, magnetic field, and atmosphere.
The spacecraft orbits Jupiter and sends important scientific data back to Earth.
This mission has provided valuable insights into planetary formation and the evolution of the solar system.
Thus, the Juno spacecraft plays a significant role in studying Jupiter.

Question: Heterotrophs are of three types. Which of the following is not one of them?
(a) Consumers
(b) Carnivores
(c) Omnivores
(d) Herbivores
Answer: a
Solution:
Heterotrophs are organisms that cannot produce their own food and depend on other organisms for nutrition. They are mainly classified into three types: herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores.
Herbivores depend on plants for food, such as cows. Carnivores feed on other animals, such as lions. Omnivores consume both plants and animals, such as humans.
“Consumers” is a broad term that includes all heterotrophs but is not a specific type.
Thus, consumers are not one of the three main categories of heterotrophs.

Question: Which of the following is a dance form of Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) Pong
(b) Bhavai
(c) Natua
(d) Ghoomar
Answer: a
Solution:
Different states of India have their own distinct folk dances that reflect their cultural diversity. ‘Pong’ is a traditional dance of Arunachal Pradesh, performed by local tribes during festivals and special occasions.
This dance is closely associated with agriculture, nature, and community life. It involves colorful traditional costumes and rhythmic music, showcasing the rich cultural heritage of the region.
Bhavai and Ghoomar are famous folk dances of Rajasthan, while Natua belongs to other regions.
Thus, Pong is a major folk dance of Arunachal Pradesh representing its cultural identity.

Question: Which is the highest governing body of “Sledge Hockey”?
(a) International Para Hockey Federation
(b) International Hockey Federation
(c) International Ice Hockey Federation
(d) International Paralympic Committee
Answer: d
Solution:
Sledge hockey, also known as para ice hockey, is a sport developed for physically disabled players. It is governed at the international level by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC), which is the highest governing body for Paralympic sports.
The sport originated in the 1960s at a rehabilitation center in Stockholm, Sweden. Players sit on sledges and use specially designed hockey sticks to move and play on ice.
The IPC is responsible for setting rules, organizing competitions, and promoting the sport globally.
Thus, the International Paralympic Committee is the highest governing body of sledge hockey.

Question: “Shinny” is an informal version of which sport?
(a) Polo
(b) Golf
(c) Rugby
(d) Hockey
Answer: d
Solution:
“Shinny” is an informal version of hockey, usually played without strict rules or structure. It is commonly associated with ice hockey and is also known as “pick-up hockey” or “pond hockey.”
In this version, there are no fixed rules regarding the number of players, field size, or equipment. It is mainly played for recreation and enjoyment.
This form of the game is popular among children and youth because it does not require formal arrangements.
Thus, Shinny is an informal version of hockey.

Question: In which state was the National AYUSH Mission (NAM) Conference 2025 held?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka
Answer: c
Solution:
The National AYUSH Mission (NAM) Conference 2025 was held in the state of Maharashtra. It took place at Kaivalyadhama in Lonavala and aimed to strengthen the integration of AYUSH systems—such as Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy—into mainstream healthcare.
The conference was organized by the Ministry of AYUSH and included experts, researchers, and policymakers. Discussions focused on research advancements, innovations, and collaboration in the AYUSH sector.
Thus, Maharashtra hosted the NAM Conference 2025.

Question: The 28th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) will be held in which state?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: a
Solution:
The 28th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) will be held in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. The main objective of this conference is to promote digital governance and improve the quality of public services.
The theme of the conference is “Viksit Bharat: Civil Service and Digital Transformation.” It includes discussions on new technologies, administrative reforms, and expansion of digital services.
The event is jointly organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Thus, Andhra Pradesh is the host state.

Question: In which district of Bihar has the ‘Pristine Mega Food Park’ been inaugurated?
(a) Patna
(b) Saran
(c) Begusarai
(d) Khagaria
Answer: d
Solution:
The Pristine Mega Food Park has been established in Khagaria district of Bihar. The objective of this project is to promote the food processing industry and provide better value to farmers for their produce.
The park offers facilities for storage, processing, and distribution of food products, strengthening the agricultural sector.
It was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Food Processing Industries and plays an important role in regional economic development.
Thus, Khagaria is the location of this project.

Question: Who from Bihar has been included among the 12 icons under the Ispati Irada campaign?
(a) Usha Jha
(b) Sarita Rai
(c) Sivadasiya Kunwar
(d) Amrita Singh
Answer: c
Solution:
Sivadasiya Kunwar, a resident of Saran district in Bihar, has been included among the 12 icons under the Ispati Irada campaign. This campaign was launched by the Ministry of Steel to recognize individuals contributing positively to society.
She was selected because she donated her land for the construction of a school in her village, helping improve access to education.
Her contribution reflects the spirit of social service and community development.
Thus, Sivadasiya Kunwar was selected for her significant contribution.

Question: Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the Bihar Road Safety Committee?
(a) Abhay Manohar Sapre
(b) Sanjay Karol
(c) Vikas Jain
(d) Ashwini Kumar Singh
Answer: a
Solution:
Justice Abhay Manohar Sapre has been appointed as the Chairman of the Bihar Road Safety Committee. He is a former judge of the Supreme Court of India and has extensive experience in legal and administrative matters.
The main objective of this committee is to improve road safety in the state, reduce accidents, and ensure effective implementation of traffic rules.
Thus, his appointment is an important step toward enhancing road safety in Bihar.

Question: Which dance of Bihar is performed as a ceremonial dance on the occasion of childbirth?
(a) Kajari
(b) Fagua
(c) Sohar-Khilouna
(d) Jhumari
Answer: c
Solution:
Sohar-Khilouna is a traditional folk dance and song form of Bihar performed on the occasion of childbirth. Sohar songs are sung along with this dance to express joy and celebration.
It holds special significance in rural society and is usually performed by women in groups. The dance reflects happiness over the birth of a child and creates a festive atmosphere in the family and community.
Kajari and Fagua are associated with other occasions, while Sohar-Khilouna is specifically linked to childbirth ceremonies.
Thus, it is an important part of Bihar’s cultural tradition.

Question: Which state produces about 50% of the total silk textiles in India?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Assam
Answer: a
Solution:
India is one of the leading producers of silk in the world, and Karnataka contributes the largest share to this production. Karnataka produces approximately 50% of the total silk in India. The state is especially known for mulberry silk, which is of high quality and widely used in the textile industry.
Regions like Mysore and Bengaluru are major centers of silk production, where the silk industry has developed over a long period. Favorable climate, advanced techniques, and government support have helped boost silk production in Karnataka.
The silk industry not only strengthens the state’s economy but also provides employment to a large number of people.
Thus, Karnataka is the largest producer of silk in India.

Question: Bhakra-Nangal, Hirakud, and Kosi projects are situated on which rivers respectively?
(a) Sutlej, Mahanadi and Kosi
(b) Sutlej, Mahanadi and Purna
(c) Mahanadi, Beas, Godavari
(d) Beas, Mahanadi, Sutlej
Answer: a
Solution:
Various multipurpose river valley projects in India play an important role in irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and flood control. The Bhakra-Nangal project is built on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh and is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in India.
The Hirakud Dam is constructed on the Mahanadi River in Odisha and is one of the longest dams in the world. It supports irrigation, flood control, and power generation.
The Kosi project is located on the Kosi River between India and Nepal and is mainly aimed at flood control and irrigation. The Kosi River is often called the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to frequent floods.
Thus, the correct sequence is Sutlej, Mahanadi, and Kosi.

Question: Which Article of the Constitution helps Madrasas remain outside the purview of the Right to Education (RTE) Act?
(a) Article 26
(b) Article 27
(c) Article 28
(d) Article 30
Answer: d
Solution:
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This provision offers protection to religious and linguistic minorities.
Madrasas, which are educational institutions primarily run by the Muslim community, fall under this Article. Therefore, they are exempt from certain provisions of the Right to Education (RTE) Act.
The purpose of Article 30 is to ensure that minority communities can preserve their cultural and educational identity.
Thus, Article 30 provides special rights that allow Madrasas certain exemptions.

Question: What is the correct composition of members in the Joint Committee on Office of Profit?
(a) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha = Total 25
(b) 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30
(c) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30
(d) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha = Total 22
Answer: a
Solution:
The Joint Committee on Office of Profit is an important parliamentary committee consisting of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It has a total of 25 members, including 15 members from Lok Sabha and 10 members from Rajya Sabha.
The main function of this committee is to determine which offices may disqualify a person from being a Member of Parliament under Article 102 of the Constitution.
The committee examines the nature and composition of various offices and submits its recommendations to Parliament.
Thus, the correct composition is 15 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.

Question: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of which commission?
(a) Law Commission
(b) Election Commission
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Delimitation Commission
Answer: c
Solution:
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the Finance Commission. According to this Article, the President constitutes a Finance Commission every five years or earlier if required.
The main function of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the central government and the states. It suggests principles for tax distribution, grants-in-aid, and overall financial balance.
This commission plays a crucial role in strengthening the federal structure by ensuring equitable distribution of resources.
Thus, Article 280 is related to the Finance Commission.

Question: Which Chief Election Commissioner of India also served as the first Chief Election Commissioner in Nepal and Sudan?
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) K. V. K. Sundaram
(c) S. P. Sen Verma
(d) Nagendra Singh
Answer: a
Solution:
Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India and successfully conducted the first general elections of 1951–52. He was known for his administrative efficiency and impartiality.
Due to his expertise, he was invited to help establish election systems in Nepal and Sudan, where he served as the first Chief Election Commissioner.
His contribution highlights his international recognition and expertise in electoral management.
Thus, Sukumar Sen played an important role in both Indian and global electoral systems.

Question: Under which law does the Election Commission register political parties in India?
(a) Constitution of India
(b) Representation of the People Act, 1950
(c) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(d) None of the above
Answer: c
Solution:
Political parties in India are registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Section 29A of this Act empowers the Election Commission to register political parties.
Any association seeking recognition as a political party must apply under this Act. Only after registration can a party obtain an official election symbol and participate in the electoral process.
This law plays an important role in ensuring a structured and transparent democratic system in India.
Thus, political parties are registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Question: What is the acceleration at a given instant of time called?
(a) Average acceleration
(b) Instantaneous acceleration
(c) Variable acceleration
(d) Zero acceleration
Answer: b
Solution:
In physics, acceleration represents the rate of change of velocity of an object. When we consider the change in velocity over a complete time interval, it is called average acceleration. However, when acceleration is measured at a specific instant of time, it is known as instantaneous acceleration.
To understand instantaneous acceleration, the time interval is considered extremely small (approaching zero). It represents the actual state of motion of an object at any particular moment. For example, if a vehicle is speeding up or slowing down, its acceleration may vary at each instant.
Variable acceleration refers to a situation where acceleration changes with time, but it does not indicate the value at a specific instant.
Thus, the acceleration at a given instant is called instantaneous acceleration.

Question: When are two vectors said to be equal?
(a) When they have equal magnitude and same direction
(b) When they have equal magnitude and opposite direction
(c) When they have equal magnitude and same initial point
(d) When they have equal magnitude irrespective of direction
Answer: a
Solution:
A vector is a physical quantity that has both magnitude and direction, such as force or velocity. Two vectors are said to be equal only when both their magnitude and direction are the same.
If the magnitude is the same but the direction is different, the vectors are not equal. For example, two forces of equal magnitude acting in opposite directions may cancel each other but are not equal vectors.
The initial point of the vector is not important; vectors can be equal even if they are located at different positions, as long as their magnitude and direction are identical.
This concept is very important in physics, especially in analyzing forces and motion.
Thus, two vectors are equal when both their magnitude and direction are the same.

Question: Why is aluminum called a “Green Metal”?
(a) It replaces wood and helps save forests
(b) It is lightweight and corrosion-resistant
(c) It can be recycled repeatedly without losing quality
(d) Land can be quickly restored after bauxite mining
Answer: c
Solution:
Aluminum is called a “Green Metal” primarily because of its high recyclability. It can be recycled repeatedly without any loss in quality.
It is estimated that nearly 75% of all aluminum ever produced is still in use today because it can be reused multiple times.
Additionally, recycling aluminum requires about 95% less energy compared to producing new aluminum from bauxite ore. This saves energy, reduces greenhouse gas emissions, and conserves natural resources.
Although aluminum is lightweight and corrosion-resistant, the main reason it is considered “green” is its excellent recycling capability.
Thus, the ability to recycle aluminum repeatedly without quality loss makes it environmentally friendly.

Question: One of the major objectives of the National Water Mission is to increase water use efficiency by 20%. What is the correct definition of water use efficiency?
(a) Increasing groundwater levels through rainwater management
(b) Extending irrigation facilities to maximum crop area
(c) Reducing water loss through evaporation, runoff, or drainage
(d) Making water bodies clean and potable
Answer: c
Solution:
Water Use Efficiency (WUE) refers to the effective use of available water while minimizing wastage. This concept is especially important in agriculture and irrigation.
The National Water Mission aims to conserve water and improve its efficient use. It focuses on reducing water losses caused by evaporation, surface runoff, and subsurface drainage.
Techniques like drip irrigation and sprinkler systems help in achieving higher water efficiency by minimizing wastage.
Improving water use efficiency not only conserves water resources but also enhances agricultural productivity.
Thus, the correct definition of water use efficiency is reducing water loss through evaporation, runoff, or drainage.

Question: Recently, which country launched ‘Project Vault’?
(a) Iran
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Brazil
Answer: b
Solution:
The United States has recently launched ‘Project Vault,’ a high-level technological security initiative aimed at protecting sensitive national data and critical infrastructure from cyber threats.
This project focuses on quantum-resistant encryption to secure data against future threats posed by advanced computing technologies.
The U.S. government considers it a strategic move to ensure digital sovereignty and safeguard national security. It functions like a secure digital vault for sharing classified information among defense and intelligence agencies.
In the evolving global cybersecurity landscape of 2026, this initiative sets a benchmark for other countries.
Thus, Project Vault was launched by the USA.

Question: Consider the following statements regarding the Arctic Ocean—
A. It is the smallest and shallowest of the five major oceans.
B. Russia, China, Norway, Iceland, Greenland (Denmark), Canada, and the USA border it.
C. It is known as the coldest ocean.

(a) Only A
(b) Only A and B
(c) Only A and C
(d) Only B and C
Answer: c
Solution:
The Arctic Ocean is the smallest and shallowest among the five major oceans—Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, and Arctic. It is located around the North Pole and remains covered with ice for most of the year. Hence, statement A is correct.
Statement B is incorrect because China does not border the Arctic Ocean. The countries bordering it are Russia, Norway, Iceland, Greenland (territory of Denmark), Canada, and the United States.
Statement C is correct as the Arctic Ocean is considered the coldest ocean, with extremely low temperatures and extensive ice cover.
The Arctic Ocean plays a crucial role in maintaining global climate balance by regulating temperature and influencing ocean currents.
Thus, only A and C are correct.

Question: Consider the following statements:

AI Summit 2027 will be held in Geneva.
This conference is limited only to European countries.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Solution:
The first statement is correct as AI Summit 2027 is proposed to be held in Geneva. The second statement is incorrect because it is a global conference involving participants and experts from all over the world, not limited to Europe.

Question: Which team won the Pro Wrestling League (PWL) 2026 title?
(a) Delhi Dangal Warriors
(b) Punjab Royals
(c) Mumbai Maharathis
(d) Haryana Thunders
Answer: d
Solution:
In the exciting final of Pro Wrestling League (PWL) 2026, Haryana Thunders defeated Delhi Dangal Warriors by a close margin of 5–4 to win the prestigious title. This season was one of the most-watched events in Indian wrestling history. The team’s captain and heavyweight wrestlers played a crucial role in securing victory, especially in the final rounds.
The league aims to provide an international platform to emerging wrestling talent from rural India. Several young Indian wrestlers surprised everyone by defeating Olympic medalists during the tournament. Haryana’s victory once again highlights the state’s strong wrestling culture and advanced training facilities.

Question: ‘CM SHRI School’ initiative was announced by which state government?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: b
Solution:
The Haryana government launched the ‘CM SHRI School’ initiative, inspired by the central government’s PM SHRI scheme. Its aim is to transform government schools into modern and high-quality educational institutions.
The initiative focuses on digital classrooms, smart boards, skill-based education, eco-friendly campuses, and overall student development. It is an effort to strengthen educational infrastructure and make government schools competitive with private institutions.

Question: Consider the following statements:

Sameer Kanodia received the ‘CEO of the Year’ award for the second consecutive time.
This award is given for excellence in sports.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Solution:
The first statement is correct as Sameer Kanodia received the ‘CEO of the Year’ award for the second consecutive time. The second statement is incorrect because this award is given for excellence in business and corporate leadership, not in sports.

Question: What is the core principle of India’s first cooperative-based ride-hailing platform ‘Bharat Taxi’?
(a) Surge pricing
(b) Driver as owner
(c) Commission-based rides
(d) Foreign investment
Answer: b
Solution:
The core principle of ‘Bharat Taxi’ is “Driver as Owner.” Unlike private platforms like Ola and Uber, it operates on a cooperative model where drivers themselves are stakeholders.
This model eliminates surge pricing, ensuring fair and stable fares for customers. It also reduces heavy commission charges, focusing on maximizing drivers’ income and welfare.
The initiative aligns with the vision of “Sahakar se Samriddhi,” aiming to empower gig economy workers and protect them from exploitation while integrating them into the digital economy.

Question: Thanya C. Nathan was appointed as the first visually impaired woman judge of which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: c
Solution:
Thanya C. Nathan was appointed as the first visually impaired woman judge in Kerala. This is a significant example of inclusivity and equal opportunity in the Indian judiciary.
Her appointment demonstrates that physical limitations do not hinder talent and capability. It is an important step toward promoting the rights of differently-abled individuals and ensuring equality in society.

Question: Who was awarded the Chang Candle Humanitarian Award 2026?
(a) Dr. Kiran Bedi
(b) Dr. Haripriya Aravind and Dr. R. Venkatesh
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Kailash Satyarthi
Answer: b
Solution:
Dr. Haripriya Aravind and Dr. R. Venkatesh were honored with the Chang Candle Humanitarian Award 2026. This award recognizes contributions in humanitarian service and social work.

Question: Which birth anniversary of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was celebrated?
(a) 394th
(b) 395th
(c) 396th
(d) 397th
Answer: c
Solution:
The 396th birth anniversary of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was celebrated. He was the founder of the Maratha Empire and a great warrior and administrator.
He adopted guerrilla warfare tactics and successfully fought against the Mughals. He also built a strong navy and promoted good governance and religious tolerance.
His birth anniversary is celebrated with great enthusiasm across India, especially in Maharashtra.

Question: Who launched the ‘Bodhan AI’ platform for the use of AI in education?
(a) Ashwini Vaishnaw
(b) Dharmendra Pradhan
(c) Piyush Goyal
(d) Anurag Thakur
Answer: b
Solution:
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the ‘Bodhan AI’ platform to promote the use of artificial intelligence in education.
This platform provides smart learning tools and digital resources for students and teachers, enhancing the learning experience and integrating technology into education.

Question: The 13th edition of the joint military exercise ‘KHANJAR’ was conducted between India and which country?
(a) Kazakhstan
(b) Uzbekistan
(c) Kyrgyzstan
(d) Tajikistan
Answer: c
Solution:
The 13th edition of the joint military exercise ‘KHANJAR’ was conducted between India and Kyrgyzstan. This exercise focuses on counter-terrorism operations and combat training in mountainous terrain.
It aims to strengthen coordination and military cooperation between the special forces of both countries.
The exercise began in 2011 and has become an important part of bilateral defense relations, contributing to regional security in Central Asia.

Question: Harmanpreet Kaur set the record for playing the most matches in which sport?
(a) Cricket
(b) Hockey
(c) Football
(d) Badminton
Answer: a
Solution:
Harmanpreet Kaur, captain of the Indian women’s cricket team, became the player with the highest number of matches in cricket. She achieved this milestone representing India in both T20 and ODI formats.
This achievement reflects her long career, fitness, and consistent performance. She has played a significant role in improving the performance of Indian women’s cricket.

Question: Which state presented its first Economic Survey 2025–26?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Sikkim
Answer: b
Solution:
Meghalaya presented its first Economic Survey for the financial year 2025–26. An economic survey provides an analysis of a state’s economic condition, growth rate, sectoral contributions, and future policy directions.
It serves as a foundation for budget preparation and helps the government in making informed policy decisions.
This step is considered important for transparency and planned economic development.

Question: According to satellite images, expansion of nuclear infrastructure in Sichuan province was observed in which country?
(a) Japan
(b) North Korea
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer: c
Solution:
Satellite imagery analysis revealed rapid expansion of nuclear weapons infrastructure in Sichuan province of China. This includes missile silos, storage facilities, and testing-related structures.
China is modernizing its nuclear capabilities to strengthen its strategic deterrence.
This development is significant for global security and arms control, as it may increase strategic competition with countries like the United States.

Question: ‘Orange Economy’ is related to which sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Creative industries
(d) Service sector
Answer: c
Solution:
The Orange Economy is also known as the Creative Economy. It includes sectors such as art, culture, film, music, media, design, fashion, gaming, and digital content.
It is based on intellectual property and innovation. Organizations like UNESCO and the World Bank recognize it as an important driver of economic growth.
For culturally rich countries like India, this sector plays a key role in employment generation, exports, and global recognition.

Question: In the recent meeting, how did the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India keep its policy stance?
(a) Accommodative
(b) Tightening
(c) Expansionary
(d) Neutral
Answer: d
Solution:
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) changed its policy stance to ‘Neutral’ in its February 2026 meeting. This is an important shift because earlier the RBI had maintained a “Withdrawal of Accommodation” stance for a long time. A ‘Neutral’ stance means the central bank keeps both options open—either increasing or decreasing the repo rate—depending on economic conditions and inflation trends. This decision was taken mainly due to a decline in retail inflation and strong domestic growth. It also signals that interest rate cuts may be possible in the future, which could make loans cheaper and boost investment.

Question: In which state was the Losar festival celebrated?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Ladakh
Answer: c
Solution:
Losar is a major festival of the Himalayan regions and was celebrated particularly in Himachal Pradesh. It marks the Tibetan New Year and includes cultural programs, traditional dances, and religious rituals.

Question: The RBI has increased the collateral-free loan limit for Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) to how much?
(a) 10 lakh
(b) 20 lakh
(c) 30 lakh
(d) 40 lakh
Answer: b
Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the collateral-free loan limit for Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) to ₹20 lakh from the earlier ₹10 lakh. The main objective of this increase is to help small entrepreneurs meet their working capital needs and expand their businesses without pledging assets. This decision is part of ongoing efforts to improve credit access for the MSME sector. It will particularly benefit startups and small businesses in rural areas. The enhanced limit is supported by digital lending and credit guarantee mechanisms like CGTMSE.

Question: When is Central Excise Day observed?
(a) 23 February
(b) 24 February
(c) 26 January
(d) 1 April
Answer: b
Solution:
Central Excise Day is observed every year on 24 February. It commemorates the implementation of the Central Excise and Salt Act, 1944. The day promotes awareness about tax compliance and transparency in tax administration.

Question: Who won the All India Management Association (AIMA) Business Leader Award?
(a) Gautam Adani
(b) Karan Adani
(c) Mukesh Ambani
(d) Ratan Tata
Answer: b
Solution:
Karan Adani received the Business Leader Award from the All India Management Association (AIMA). This award is given for excellence in leadership and significant contributions to business.

Question: Who won the gold medal by defeating Canada in the Milan Winter Olympics 2026?
(a) Sweden
(b) United States
(c) Finland
(d) Germany
Answer: b
Solution:
The United States (USA) defeated Canada in the final of the Milan Winter Olympics 2026 to win the gold medal. The match was highly competitive and reflected the long-standing rivalry between the two nations in ice hockey.

Question: Which country introduced the HIV prevention drug ‘Lenacapavir’?
(a) South Africa
(b) Kenya
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Nigeria
Answer: c
Solution:
Zimbabwe introduced the long-acting HIV prevention drug Lenacapavir. This drug remains effective for a longer duration and helps prevent HIV infection, marking a significant advancement in public health, especially in Africa.

Question: Which team won the 72nd Senior Women’s National Kabaddi Tournament 2026?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Haryana
(c) Odisha
(d) Chhattisgarh
Answer: b
Solution:
Haryana won the 72nd Senior Women’s National Kabaddi Tournament 2026 with an excellent performance. The team showcased strong agility and defensive skills in the final. Haryana is often called the “nursery of kabaddi,” and this victory once again proves its strong grassroots sports system.

Question: The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has been shifted to which new building?
(a) Kartavya Bhavan
(b) Seva Teerth
(c) Central Vista Tower
(d) Jan Seva Bhavan
Answer: b
Solution:
The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has been shifted to the new building named ‘Seva Teerth’. This building is equipped with modern facilities and advanced technology, improving administrative efficiency.

Question: In which state is the ‘Rusoma Orange Festival’ organized?
(a) Assam
(b) Nagaland
(c) Manipur
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: b
Solution:
The Rusoma Orange Festival is organized in Nagaland. It promotes orange cultivation and local agricultural products, providing farmers with better market opportunities and encouraging agri-tourism.

Question: What was the name of the rescue operation conducted to save stranded tourists in East Sikkim?
(a) Operation Himrahat
(b) Operation Meghdoot
(c) Operation Suraksha
(d) Operation Sadbhavana
Answer: a
Solution:
Operation Himrahat was the rescue mission carried out to save 46 stranded tourists in East Sikkim. Such operations are conducted in difficult mountainous conditions involving snow, landslides, and extreme weather, showcasing India’s disaster response capability.

Question: The ‘North East Spring Festival 2026’ was held in Dimapur, which is located in which state?
(a) Manipur
(b) Mizoram
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Answer: d
Solution:
Dimapur is a major city in Nagaland, where the North East Spring Festival 2026 was held. The festival promotes the culture, handicrafts, music, and tourism of Northeast India and provides a platform for local artists and artisans.

Download Pdf 👇

Coming Soon……….

Pages: 1 2

BPSC AEDO 14 April 2026 Paper II General Studies in English

Download Pdf 👇

Related Posts