Bihar Daroga 21 January 2026 (1st Shift) Question and Answer Key Pdf Download in Hindi and English -

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Bihar Daroga 21 January 2026 (1st Shift) Qn in English

Question: Who wrote the book “Modi Ka Mission”, which was released by Maharashtra Governor Acharya Devvrat?
(a) Burgis Desai
(b) Amitav Ghosh
(c) Chetan Bhagat
(d) Vikram Seth

Answer: a

Solution:
The book “Modi Ka Mission” was written by Burgis Desai, and it was released by Maharashtra Governor Acharya Devvrat. This book presents a comprehensive analysis of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s life, leadership style, and his vision of “Viksit Bharat” (Developed India). It describes in a sequential manner his journey from his simple childhood in Vadnagar, Gujarat, to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). The book especially highlights his administrative efficiency, decision-making ability, and mission-based working style. The author has also mentioned the impact of various policies, welfare schemes, and development-oriented programs implemented under his leadership. Burgis Desai is known for writing on contemporary themes, and his other major works include Murder at the Racecourse, Towers of Silence, Oh, Those Parsis, and The Bawajis. Among the other authors, Amitav Ghosh’s Smoke and Ashes, Chetan Bhagat’s 12 Years: My Messed-Up Love Story, and Vikram Seth’s From Heaven Lake are famous works that reflect their literary contributions. This book is considered useful for developing an understanding of political leadership, governance systems, and policy-making.

Question: Who discovered the cell?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Edward Jenner
(d) Louis Pasteur

Answer: a

Solution:
The cell was discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665, which is considered a historic achievement in the field of biology. With the help of a microscope made by himself, he studied a thin slice of cork, in which he observed structures resembling a honeycomb. He named these tiny compartments “cells,” which means a small room or chamber. The cells observed by Hooke were actually dead cells, because cork is dead tissue. The first observation of living cells was made in 1674 by Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, who also studied microorganisms. The cell is considered the structural and functional unit of life, and its study is called cytology. Robert Hooke is called the “Father of Cytology,” while Swanson is regarded as the father of modern cytology and A. K. Sharma as the father of Indian cytology. Later, Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell theory, and Virchow gave the principle that every new cell arises from a pre-existing cell, which further strengthened the foundation of cell science.

Question: Who was known as the father of local self-government?
(a) Ripon
(b) Canning
(c) Bentinck
(d) Mountbatten

Answer: a

Solution:
Lord Ripon is called the father of local self-government in India because during his tenure (1880–1884), the formal beginning of local self-government took place in 1882, which laid the foundation of administrative decentralization. He strengthened municipalities and district boards by ensuring the participation of elected representatives, making administration more responsible and people-oriented. Local bodies were entrusted with responsibilities such as education, health, sanitation, and other public services. During his time, regular census also began in 1881. Local self-government in India is a subject of the State List. After independence, this system was further developed, and on 2 October 1959, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated the Panchayati Raj system in Nagaur district of Rajasthan. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system, due to which Balwant Rai Mehta is also called the father of democratic decentralization. By the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, Panchayati Raj Institutions were given constitutional status, which came into force on 24 April 1993. This system was further strengthened by including 29 subjects in Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the 11th Schedule of the Constitution.

Question: Recently, whom was appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission by President Droupadi Murmu?
(a) Arvind Panagariya
(b) A.K. Singh
(c) Amitav Ghosh
(d) Shaktikanta Das

Answer: a

Solution:
Recently, President Droupadi Murmu appointed Dr. Arvind Panagariya as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, provided under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, according to which the President constitutes it every five years. The First Finance Commission in India was constituted on 22 November 1951 under the presidential order and formally established on 6 April 1952 under the chairmanship of K. C. Neogy. The Finance Commission consists of one Chairman and four other members, all appointed by the President. Its main function is the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, and also the allocation of such proceeds among the states. In addition, it also determines the principles governing grants-in-aid to states. Under Article 243(I), a State Finance Commission is constituted, while Article 243(Y) relates to financial matters of municipalities. The recommendations of the 16th Finance Commission will remain effective for the period 2026–2031. The Secretary of this Commission is Ritvik Ranjanam Pandey, who manages its administrative functions.

Question: Who received the Jnanpith Award 2025?
(a) Gulzar
(b) Vinod Kumar Shukla
(c) Rambhadracharya
(d) Damodar Mauzo

Answer: b

Solution:
In the Jnanpith Award 2025, the famous Hindi litterateur Vinod Kumar Shukla was honored, as he was conferred the 59th Jnanpith Award for the year 2024. This award was established by Bharatiya Jnanpith, which was founded in 1961, and it was first awarded in 1965 to the Malayalam writer G. Sankara Kurup for his work “Odakkuzhal.” The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary honor in India, given only to living Indian authors for their outstanding literary contribution. The award carries a cash prize of ₹11 lakh, a statue of Vagdevi Saraswati, and a citation certificate. Vinod Kumar Shukla is the first litterateur from Chhattisgarh to receive this honor, which also gave regional literature recognition at the national level. His major works include Naukar Ki Kameez, Deewar Mein Ek Khidki Rehti Hai, and Khilega To Dekhenge. He passed away on 23 December 2025, which caused an irreparable loss to Hindi literature.

Question: Which of the following crops is cultivated in dry regions?
(a) Jute
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Pearl Millet
(d) Rice

Answer: c

Solution:
Pearl millet (Bajra) is a crop mainly cultivated in dry and semi-arid regions, because it can grow easily even under low rainfall and adverse conditions. It is a coarse grain and comes under the Kharif crop category. For the cultivation of bajra, a temperature of about 25°C to 35°C and an annual rainfall of 40 to 56 cm is sufficient, making it highly suitable for drought-prone areas. Its special feature is that it can also produce a good yield even in poor or less fertile soil. In India, the highest production of bajra is in Rajasthan, which is its largest producing state, while Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Haryana are also major producers. Its important varieties include Babapuri, Moti, HB-3, HB-4, and T-55. In contrast, rice requires more than 100 cm rainfall and a temperature of 20°C to 32°C, whereas jute needs 150–200 cm rainfall and high humidity. Therefore, bajra is the most suitable crop for dry regions.

Question: Which of the following is not a leading state in ragi production?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b

Solution:
Ragi, also known as finger millet, is an important coarse grain mainly cultivated in dry and semi-arid regions. In India, Karnataka is the leading state in ragi production, contributing about 60–62% of the total national output. Districts such as Tumakuru, Ramanagara, Bengaluru Rural, Hassan, and Mandya are its major producing areas. Besides Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh are also important ragi-producing states. Ragi is mainly a Kharif crop and grows well in low rainfall and dry climatic conditions. It can be cultivated in red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils, which makes it suitable even for less fertile land. In different regions, ragi is also known by names such as Mandua, Nachni, Kodra, and Mandiya. In contrast, Rajasthan is not a leading state in ragi production, because its climate and agricultural pattern are more suitable for other crops, especially bajra. Thus, it is clear that Rajasthan does not occupy a major position in ragi production.

Question: Statement:
(i) Imphal is the capital of the Indian state of Manipur.
(ii) The Battle of Imphal took place during World War II.
(a) Only (i) is correct.
(b) Only (ii) is correct.
(c) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.

Answer: d

Solution:
Imphal is the capital of the northeastern Indian state of Manipur, and it is a highly important city from administrative, cultural, and historical perspectives. It is located in the Manipur Valley and serves as the major political and economic center of the state. During World War II, the Battle of Imphal was a highly significant military conflict fought between 8 March 1944 and 18 July 1944. This battle took place between the combined forces of the Japanese Army and the Indian National Army (INA) on one side, and the British Indian Army on the other. The main battlefield was near Maibam Lokpa Ching (also known as Red Hill) close to Imphal, where the final decisive battle was fought. In this conflict, the Japanese forces suffered heavy losses, and the battle proved decisive for the Allied powers in the final stages of World War II. Parallel to this, the Battle of Kohima was also fought between 4 April and 22 June 1944 on the India–Burma border, which is often called the “Stalingrad of the East.” These battles established the strategic importance of Northeast India at the global level.

Question: During November 2025, which Indian tennis player retired?
(a) Mahesh Bhupathi
(b) Sania Mirza
(c) Leander Paes
(d) Rohan Bopanna

Answer: d

Solution:
During November 2025, Indian tennis player Rohan Bopanna retired from professional tennis, marking the end of his long and successful career. Bopanna was a part of India’s Davis Cup team from 2002 to 2024, representing the country at the international level. In his career spanning more than two decades, he won two Grand Slam titles and several ATP Masters 1000 titles. Notably, in 2024, he became the oldest player to achieve World No. 1 in ATP doubles rankings, which reflected his consistency and outstanding performance. The ATP Masters 1000 is a prestigious men’s tennis tournament series consisting of 9 major events, where the winner receives 1000 ranking points. Among other Indian tennis players, Sania Mirza retired in February 2023 after the Dubai Tennis Championships, while Mahesh Bhupathi retired in 2016 and Leander Paes in 2020. Thus, Rohan Bopanna’s retirement is regarded as an important event in the history of Indian tennis.

Question: Which semi-humanoid robot will be used in the Gaganyaan Mission?
(a) Vyommitra
(b) Pragyan
(c) Daksh
(d) Manav

Answer: a

Solution:
Under India’s Gaganyaan Mission, the semi-humanoid (humanoid) robot named “Vyommitra” will be used, which has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). This robot has been prepared to test various technical and biological processes before human spaceflight. Vyommitra is a half-humanoid robot, which means it has some human-like abilities, but it does not have legs and can only bend forward and sideways. The word “Vyommitra” is derived from two Sanskrit words—“Vyom” (space) and “Mitra” (friend)—which together mean “friend of space.” This robot is equipped with advanced technologies such as sensors, cameras, microphones, speakers, and actuators, enabling it to understand and respond to human-like activities. It was presented at the conference organized by ISRO, the International Academy of Astronautics (IAA), and the Astronautical Society of India in Bengaluru. With the success of the Gaganyaan Mission, India will become the fourth country after the United States, Russia, and China to achieve human spaceflight capability. The “Daksh” mission is a separate unmanned satellite project, while “Pragyan” is the rover of Chandrayaan-3, so the correct answer is Vyommitra.

Question: Which of the following stars remains under the pressure of electron gas?
(a) Neutron star
(b) White dwarf
(c) Black hole
(d) Nova star

Answer: b

Solution:
A white dwarf is a star that has reached the final stage of its life cycle, in which the process of energy production, that is nuclear fusion, has ended. The stability of such stars mainly depends on electron degeneracy pressure, which arises due to the principles of quantum mechanics. When the fuel of a star is exhausted, gravity tries to compress it, but the degeneracy pressure of the electron gas opposes this compression and keeps the star in equilibrium. White dwarfs are extremely dense, having a very high density, and their size is usually comparable to that of the Earth, while their mass may be nearly equal to that of the Sun. Over time, when it loses its remaining heat as well, it cools down and eventually turns into a black dwarf. In contrast, a neutron star is supported by neutron degeneracy pressure, while in a black hole, gravity is so intense that even light cannot escape. Thus, the star that remains stable because of the pressure of electron gas is the white dwarf.

Question: Arrange the following according to reactivity.
(a) K > Zn > Cu > Ag
(b) K > Cu > Zn > Ag
(c) Ag > Cu > Zn > K
(d) Ag > Zn > Cu > K

Answer: a

Solution:
To understand the reactivity of metals, the reactivity series is used, in which metals are arranged in the decreasing order of their reactivity. In this series, potassium (K) is a highly reactive metal that reacts vigorously even with cold water, producing hydrogen gas. After that comes zinc (Zn), which is a moderately reactive metal and can react with steam or acids. Copper (Cu) is comparatively less reactive and under normal conditions it cannot displace hydrogen. Silver (Ag) is a very low reactive metal and reacts only under special conditions. In the complete reactivity series, elements such as potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium, aluminium, zinc, iron, lead, hydrogen, copper, silver, and gold are included. According to this series, a more reactive metal can displace a less reactive metal from its compound. Therefore, among the given options, the correct order is K > Zn > Cu > Ag, which represents the decreasing order of reactivity.

Question: In which state is there no Legislative Council?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar

Answer: a

Solution:
The Legislative Council is the upper house of the state legislature, which is established in states having a bicameral system. At present, only a few states in India have a Legislative Council, including Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. In these states, the Legislative Council is created under Article 169 of the Constitution, according to which Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council by a simple majority, based on a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly. According to Article 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council can be one-third (1/3) of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly, while the minimum strength is fixed at 40 members. The tenure of its members is 6 years, and one-third members retire every two years. The minimum age to become a member of the Legislative Council is 30 years. Historically, under the Government of India Act, 1935, Legislative Councils were first established in Madras, Bombay, Bengal, United Provinces, Bihar, and Assam. Among the given options, Rajasthan is a state where there is currently no Legislative Council, while it exists in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.

Question: If you visit Bihar, where will you see the Someshwar Hills?
(a) In the north-western part of West Champaran
(b) In the south of Banka
(c) In Gaya
(d) In Rohtas

Answer: a

Solution:
The Someshwar Hills are located in the north-western part of West Champaran district of Bihar, and they form a part of the Shiwalik Range, which is considered the outermost (third) range of the Himalayas. This region is geographically very important because it lies near the India–Nepal border, and routes connecting the two countries have developed through this area. The highest peak of the Someshwar range, known as “Fort Someshwar,” is about 874 meters high, making it one of the significant high peaks of Bihar. Important passes such as Someshwar, Bhikhnathori, and Marwat are located in this region, which have also been historically and strategically important. The Someshwar Fort is also situated in the same area, which served as an important military and administrative center in ancient times. This region forms part of the geomorphological structure created during the Pleistocene period and is associated with the formation of the Shiwalik mountains. In contrast, the southern part of Bihar is a plateau region extending through Kaimur and Rohtas districts, which is an extension of the Vindhya Range, mainly composed of sandstone and limestone. Thus, it is clear that the Someshwar Hills are situated in the north-western part of West Champaran.

Question: What is the state animal of Bihar?
(a) Gaur
(b) Buffalo
(c) Cow
(d) Nilgai

Answer: a

Solution:
The state animal of Bihar is the “Gaur” (Indian Bison), which was officially declared in 2013. Its scientific name is Bos gaurus, and it is considered the largest wild bovine animal in the world. The gaur is famous for its massive body, muscular build, and distinctive horns, and it is mainly found in dense forests and hilly regions. In Bihar, it is especially found in the Valmiki Tiger Reserve, which is the state’s major wildlife sanctuary. The gaur plays an important role in the ecosystem, as it helps in maintaining vegetation balance. Other state symbols of Bihar include the House Sparrow as the state bird, Peepal as the state tree, Marigold as the state flower, and Desi Mangur as the state fish. The name Bihar itself historically developed from the word “Vihar,” due to the abundance of Buddhist monasteries in the region. Declaring the gaur as the state animal was aimed at promoting wildlife conservation and preserving the biodiversity of the state. This decision is considered an important step towards environmental protection.

Question: Which of the following Buddhist pilgrimage sites is not in Bihar?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Bodh Gaya
(c) Rajgir
(d) Griddhakuta Hill

Answer: a

Solution:
Lumbini is a very important pilgrimage site of Buddhism, but it is not located in Bihar; rather, it is situated in Nepal. It is the birthplace of Lord Buddha, where he was born in 563 BCE near Kapilavastu in the Shakya clan. In contrast, Bodh Gaya, Rajgir, and Griddhakuta Hill are major Buddhist pilgrimage sites located in Bihar. Bodh Gaya is the place where Siddhartha Gautama attained enlightenment under the Peepal tree (Bodhi Tree) on the banks of the Niranjana River, after which he became the Buddha. Rajgir was the ancient capital of Magadha and remained an important center of Buddhism. Griddhakuta Hill, also known as Vulture Peak, is located in Rajgir and is the place where Buddha delivered many sermons. The Second Buddhist Council is also considered associated with this region. Thus, Lumbini is the only Buddhist pilgrimage site among the options that is located outside Bihar, while all the others are situated within Bihar.

Question: What was included in the UNESCO register in 2025?
(a) Ramcharitmanas
(b) Bhagavad Gita
(c) Panchatantra
(d) Sahridayalok-Lochan

Answer: b

Solution:
In 2025, the Bhagavad Gita was included in UNESCO’s “Memory of the World Register,” which is an important text of India’s cultural and philosophical heritage. This decision was taken on 17 April 2025 during the meeting of UNESCO’s Executive Board held in Paris, France. Along with it, Bharata Muni’s “Natyashastra” was also given a place in this prestigious list. This UNESCO register has been created with the objective of preserving the world’s important documents, manuscripts, and cultural records. Earlier, in May 2024, Ramcharitmanas, Panchatantra, and Sahridayalok-Lochan had been included in the Asia-Pacific Regional Register. The Bhagavad Gita is a part of the Mahabharata and provides profound philosophical teachings based on life, duty, action, and morality. It is recognized worldwide as a spiritual guide. Its inclusion by UNESCO is a symbol of the global recognition of India’s ancient knowledge tradition.

Question: Which sage was not related to the Mithila region of Bihar?
(a) Patanjali
(b) Gautama
(c) Yajnavalkya
(d) Janaka

Answer: a

Solution:
Maharishi Patanjali was not related to the Mithila region of Bihar, whereas Gautama, Yajnavalkya, and Janaka are considered major personalities associated with Mithila. Patanjali is believed to have been born at a place called Kodar in Gonda district of Uttar Pradesh, and he is famous as the father of Yoga philosophy. His work “Yoga Sutra” is a highly important text of Indian philosophy, in which the principles and practices of yoga are described in detail. He also wrote the famous commentary “Mahabhashya” on Panini’s Ashtadhyayi. On the other hand, Maharishi Gautama was the founder of Nyaya philosophy and composed the “Nyaya Sutra.” Maharishi Yajnavalkya was a great sage of the Vedic period, associated with the Shukla Yajurveda, Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, and Yajnavalkya Smriti. King Janaka was the famous philosopher-king of Mithila, regarded as a patron of learning and wisdom. Thus, it is clear that Patanjali is the only sage among them who was not related to the Mithila region.

Question: When was the National Medicinal Plants Board established?
(a) 2000
(b) 2021
(c) 1978
(d) 2014

Answer: a

Solution:
The National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) was established on 24 November 2000 by the Government of India. This organization functions under the Ministry of AYUSH. Its main objective is to promote the conservation, cultivation, scientific farming, and marketing of medicinal plants in the country. Medicinal plants hold great importance in Ayurveda, Unani, and Siddha systems of medicine in India, and therefore this board was formed for their systematic development.

The board encourages farmers to cultivate medicinal plants and provides them with technical as well as financial assistance. Plants such as Tulsi, Neem, Ashwagandha, Aloe Vera, Turmeric, and Ginger are major medicinal plants that have high domestic and international demand. NMPB runs schemes to improve the quality, production, and export promotion of these plants.

In addition, the board adopts in-situ and ex-situ conservation methods for the preservation of medicinal plants. The Central Drug Research Institute located in Lucknow (established in 1951) also works in this field and supports the development of medicinal plants through research.

Question: In which year was the Scientific Society in Bihar formed by Syed Imdad Ali?
(a) 1919
(b) 1921
(c) 1899
(d) 1868

Answer: d

Solution:
The Scientific Society in Bihar was established by Syed Imdad Ali in 1868 at Muzaffarpur. Its objective was to promote scientific knowledge, modern education, and intellectual awareness in Bihar. At that time, the spread of education was limited and there was a lack of scientific material in Indian languages, so the establishment of this institution was highly significant.

Later, the name of this society was changed to “Bihar Scientific Society.” Through this institution, articles, research papers, and publications on various scientific subjects were produced. The society also published a journal named “Akhbar-ul-Akhyar,” so that knowledge could spread among common people.

Similarly, the Scientific Society established by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in Aligarh in 1864 also aimed to translate Western science and technical knowledge into Indian languages. In 1875, he founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College, which later became Aligarh Muslim University.

Question: Where was Ex-Mobility recently organized?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Kolkata

Answer: c

Solution:
The Bharat Mobility Global Expo 2025 (Ex-Mobility) was organized in New Delhi from 17 January to 22 January 2025. It was a major international event organized by the Government of India, bringing various sectors related to mobility onto a single platform. The event was held at venues such as Bharat Mandapam (Pragati Maidan), Yashobhoomi (Dwarka), and Greater Noida.

This expo showcased technologies related to the automobile industry, electric vehicles (EVs), hydrogen fuel, smart transport systems, digital mobility, and infrastructure. Many major companies, startups, and experts from India and abroad participated in it.

Special emphasis was laid on environment-friendly transportation, reduction in carbon emissions, and sustainable development technologies. Various models and innovations were presented to promote electric vehicles and green energy-based transport systems.

Question: Where was the national conference on Artificial Intelligence for empowering persons with disabilities held?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Mumbai

Answer: c

Solution:
The national conference on Artificial Intelligence (AI) aimed at empowering persons with disabilities was held in Bengaluru. The main objective of this conference was to make the lives of persons with disabilities more accessible, self-reliant, and empowered through the use of modern technology, especially Artificial Intelligence. It was organized by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India. The public sector enterprise ALIMCO (Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India), which works under the ministry and is a leading institution in manufacturing assistive devices, also supported this event.

In this conference, experts, technology companies, startups, and policymakers discussed how AI-based solutions such as smart wheelchairs, voice recognition systems, Braille-based digital devices, and assistive software can reduce the day-to-day challenges faced by persons with disabilities. Special emphasis was also laid on building an Inclusive Digital Ecosystem.

In India, International Day of Persons with Disabilities is observed every year on 3 December, with the objective of increasing awareness about the rights and welfare of persons with disabilities. Such conferences play an important role in ensuring that technological innovations reach the weaker sections of society.

Question: At which of the following places is an IIT located?
(a) Chennai, Mumbai, Pune, Kanpur
(b) Chennai, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kanpur
(c) Guwahati, Kanpur, Pune, Chennai
(d) Mumbai, Guwahati, Pune, Kanpur

Answer: b

Solution:
The Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) are India’s premier technical institutions, providing high-quality education in the fields of engineering, science, and technology. Several IITs have been established in India, among which Chennai (IIT Madras), Mumbai (IIT Bombay), Guwahati (IIT Guwahati), and Kanpur (IIT Kanpur) are major ones.

IIT Madras was established in 1959 with the cooperation of the Government of India and West Germany. IIT Bombay was established in 1958 with the assistance of the Soviet Union and UNESCO. IIT Kanpur was established in 1959, and several American universities contributed to its development. IIT Guwahati was established in 1994 and is the leading technical institution in Northeast India.

In contrast, Pune does not have an IIT, so any option containing Pune becomes incorrect. IIT Kharagpur (1950) is the first IIT in India, formally inaugurated in 1951. These institutions play a significant role in the technical development and research of the country and are highly prestigious at the global level as well.

Question: Bhor Ghat is located in—
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Sahyadri
(c) Kolli
(d) Aravalli

Answer: b

Solution:
Bhor Ghat is an important mountain pass located in the Western Ghats of India, which is a part of the Sahyadri mountain range. It is situated in the state of Maharashtra and plays a vital role in connecting Mumbai and Pune. This pass lies between Khopoli and Khandala and has historically been a major route for trade and transportation.

The Sahyadri range is another name for the Western Ghats, which extends for about 1600 km from the mouth of the Tapti River to Kanyakumari. Its average elevation ranges between 1200 to 1500 meters, and the height gradually increases from north to south.

Several important passes are located in the Western Ghats, such as Bhor Ghat (Mumbai–Pune route), Thal Ghat (Nashik–Mumbai route), Palghat (Kerala–Tamil Nadu route), and Shencottah Pass. In contrast, the Aravalli Range is the oldest mountain range in India, while the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and fragmented. Hence, Bhor Ghat is located in the Sahyadri range.

Question: What is the theme of Rabies Day 2025?
(a) Act Now: You, Me, Community
(b) Only government action
(c) Only vaccination of animals
(d) Only post-infection treatment

Answer: a

Solution:
World Rabies Day is observed every year on 28 September to spread awareness about rabies and to promote its control and elimination. The theme for 2025 was “Act Now: You, Me, Community.” The main purpose of this theme is to highlight that preventing a deadly disease like rabies is not only the responsibility of the government, but also requires the active participation of every individual in society.

Rabies is a viral disease, mainly spread through the bite of infected animals, especially dogs, and it affects the central nervous system. If not treated on time, it is almost always fatal. Therefore, awareness about prevention and immediate treatment is extremely important.

The World Health Organization (WHO) aims to eliminate dog-mediated rabies by 2030. For this, large-scale dog vaccination, public awareness campaigns, and timely access to medical treatment are being ensured.

The rabies vaccine was discovered by Louis Pasteur, which was a major milestone in controlling this disease. Thus, the theme emphasizes collective responsibility and active participation.

Question: In which city of Bihar was a podcast on climate change organized on radio?
(a) Patna
(b) Arrah
(c) Bhojpur
(d) Gopalganj

Answer: a

Solution:
A podcast and live streaming program on climate change was organized through radio in Patna city, Bihar. This program was especially significant in the context of agriculture and the environment, as its aim was to make farmers aware of the impacts of climate change and inform them about climate-smart agricultural techniques. The event was conducted through the AI-based Bihar Agriculture Radio platform connected with the Krishi Bhawan in Mithapur, Patna, using modern technology to deliver accurate weather information and scientific advice to farmers.

During the program, experts discussed issues such as changing rainfall patterns, temperature variations, drought, and floods, which are highly relevant for an agriculture-dominated state like Bihar. Farmers were also informed about sustainable agriculture, crop diversification, water conservation, and the use of improved seeds.

Patna has also seen other initiatives related to climate change, such as the establishment of the country’s first Climate Change Learning Lab at Patna Zoo. In addition, several climate awareness programs have been organized in different districts of Bihar, including media workshops in Kishanganj. Thus, Patna has emerged as a major center for such environmental and agricultural awareness activities.

Question: In which district has Bihar’s first MotoGP race track been built?
(a) Aurangabad
(b) Gaya
(c) Rohtas
(d) Patna

Answer: b

Solution:
Bihar’s first MotoGP race track is being developed in Gaya district. The objective of this project is to place Bihar on the international motorsport map and promote sports tourism in the state. The proposed race track is being developed according to international standards, and there is a plan to prepare it as an FIM (Fédération Internationale de Motocyclisme) Grade-A circuit.

The construction of this track will not only strengthen the state’s sports infrastructure, but it will also boost tourism, employment, and the local economy. Gaya district is already important from a religious and cultural perspective, as it is home to Bodh Gaya, one of the most important pilgrimage sites of Buddhism. Therefore, the MotoGP track can make the district significant in both sports and tourism sectors.

Several other development works have also been carried out in Gaya district, such as the construction of the state’s first rubber dam on the Falgu River, known as the Gayaji Dam. In addition, an Urban Forest (Nagar Van) has been developed in the Brahmayoni hill area, and a Bamboo Garden has also been established in Bodh Gaya. Thus, Gaya district is rapidly moving toward multi-dimensional development.

Question: Article 14 (Right to Equality) has the following exceptions—
(i) No criminal proceedings can be initiated against the President during the term of office.
(ii) No criminal proceedings can be initiated against the Governor during the term of office.

Code:
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither

Answer: c

Solution:
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees “equality before law” and “equal protection of laws.” This means that all citizens are equal in the eyes of the law, and the state cannot discriminate arbitrarily. However, there are certain constitutional exceptions to this principle provided under special circumstances.

The President and the Governor enjoy certain immunities during their tenure, which are provided under Article 361 of the Constitution. According to this provision, no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against the President or a Governor in any court during their term of office. In addition, no process for arrest or imprisonment can be issued against them while they remain in office.

This immunity is granted so that they may perform their constitutional duties independently and without pressure, fear, or hindrance. Therefore, it acts as an exception to the general principle of Article 14.

There are also other exceptions to equality before law, such as reasonable classification, special provisions for women and children, and diplomatic immunity granted to foreign diplomats. Hence, both statements are correct.

Question: What is meant by industrial unemployment?
(a) People working in agriculture remain unemployed in the off-season.
(b) People engaged in the handloom industry become unemployed due to the installation of new machines.
(c) More people work on a small piece of land than required.
(d) Highly educated people remain unemployed when they do not get the job of their choice.

Answer: b

Solution:
Industrial unemployment refers to a situation in which people employed in industries lose their jobs because of technological changes, increasing use of machines, or industrial modernization. This type of unemployment is more common in sectors where traditional or labor-intensive industries are replaced by machines and modern technology.

For example, workers engaged in the handloom industry may become unemployed when power looms or advanced machines replace manual weaving. This kind of unemployment is also known as technological unemployment or structural unemployment.

A major reason behind industrial unemployment is that many workers are unable to update their skills according to new technologies, making them unsuitable for the changing requirements of industries. In addition, population growth, migration from rural to urban areas, and limited industrial job opportunities further worsen the problem.

After the Industrial Revolution, this form of unemployment increased significantly as machines began replacing human labor on a large scale. Therefore, option (b) is the correct example of industrial unemployment.

Question: Consider the following statements.
Statement (i): Exchange rate shows the rate of conversion of Indian Rupee into foreign currency.
Statement (ii): Exchange rate also shows the value of foreign currency in terms of Indian Rupee.
Which of the above statements is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither

Answer: c

Solution:
The exchange rate is an important concept in international economics that represents the value relationship between the currencies of two countries. In simple terms, it is the rate at which one country’s currency is exchanged for another country’s currency. For example, if 1 US Dollar = 83 Indian Rupees, it means that 83 rupees are needed to obtain 1 dollar.

According to statement (i), the exchange rate shows the rate at which Indian Rupees are converted into foreign currency, which is completely correct. This is known as direct quotation, where the domestic currency is expressed in terms of foreign currency.

Statement (ii) is also correct because the exchange rate can also be expressed as the value of foreign currency in terms of Indian Rupee. For example, 1 Rupee = 0.012 Dollar is an example of indirect quotation.

Exchange rates are influenced by many factors such as demand and supply, inflation rate, interest rate, foreign investment, trade balance, and economic stability. In India, the Reserve Bank of India plays an important role in regulating and stabilizing exchange rates.

Question: According to the slash-and-burn system of agriculture, which pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Western Ghats – Kumari
(b) Andhra Pradesh – Podu
(c) Madhya Pradesh – Koman
(d) Rajasthan – Valara

Answer: c

Solution:
The slash-and-burn agricultural system is a traditional farming method, also known as shifting cultivation. In this system, farmers clear land by cutting and burning vegetation, which adds nutrients to the soil in the form of ash. Crops are then grown for a few years, and when the fertility declines, farmers shift to another area.

In different parts of India, this system is known by different names. In the Western Ghats, it is called Kumari, which is correctly matched. In Andhra Pradesh, it is known as Podu or Penda, which is also correct. In Rajasthan, it is known as Valara, which is another correct match.

However, in Madhya Pradesh, this system is not called Koman. Instead, it is known as Bewar or Dahia. Therefore, the pair Madhya Pradesh – Koman is incorrectly matched.

Globally, this method is also known by different names, such as Milpa in Mexico, Roca in Brazil, Ladang in Indonesia, and Jhum in North-East India.

Question: Arrange the tours conducted by the Chief Minister in Bihar in chronological order—
(i) Nyaya Yatra
(ii) Vikas Yatra
(iii) Samajik Sudhar Yatra
(iv) Pragati Yatra

(a) (ii)→(i)→(iv)→(iii)
(b) (ii)→(iv)→(ii)→(i)
(c) (iv)→(iii)→(ii)→(i)
(d) (i)→(ii)→(iii)→(iv)

Answer: d

Solution:
The Chief Minister of Bihar, Nitish Kumar, organized several public outreach and review tours over different years with the aim of development, administrative reforms, and direct public interaction. Understanding their sequence in time is important.

The first was Nyaya Yatra, launched in 2005, mainly to establish direct communication with the public and improve governance. After this, Vikas Yatra was organized in 2009, focusing on the inspection and review of development schemes across the state.

Later, in 2020, the Samajik Sudhar Yatra was started, with the objective of spreading awareness against social evils such as dowry, child marriage, and substance abuse. After this, the Pragati Yatra (2024–25) was conducted to assess the progress of development works.

Thus, when arranged chronologically, the correct sequence is:
Nyaya Yatra → Vikas Yatra → Samajik Sudhar Yatra → Pragati Yatra

Question: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution do the members of the Bihar Legislative Assembly take oath?
(a) Article 186
(b) Article 187
(c) Article 188
(d) Article 189

Answer: c

Solution:
Article 188 of the Constitution of India deals with the oath or affirmation by members of the State Legislative Assembly. According to this Article, no member can participate in the proceedings of the House until he or she has taken the oath or affirmation.

This oath is administered before the Governor or a person appointed by the Governor, such as the Pro-tem Speaker. The format of the oath is given in the Third Schedule of the Constitution, in which the member pledges faithfulness to the Constitution and to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.

The Bihar Legislative Assembly is the lower house of the state legislature, consisting of 243 members. Their normal term is 5 years, and the minimum age to become a member is 25 years.

Other related Articles include Article 178 (Speaker and Deputy Speaker), Article 179 (resignation of Speaker), and Article 182 (Chairman of Legislative Council), but the specific provision regarding oath is contained only in Article 188.

Question: In collaboration with the Indian Army, which organization developed ‘Sanjay – The Battlefield Surveillance System’?
(a) ISRO
(b) DRDO
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics
(d) Bharat Electronics Limited

Answer: d

Solution:
‘Sanjay – The Battlefield Surveillance System’ is an advanced surveillance system developed for the Indian Army by Bharat Electronics Limited in collaboration with the Army. It has been designed to provide real-time battlefield information, thereby strengthening the strategic and tactical capabilities of the armed forces.

The main function of this system is to integrate data from multiple sources, such as ground sensors (radars, cameras), aerial platforms (drones, UAVs), and other surveillance devices. Through this, commanders receive a complete and clear battlefield picture, enabling them to make quick and accurate decisions. It is based on the concept of Network Centric Warfare, where rapid exchange of information is extremely important.

This project has been developed under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, and its cost is estimated to be around ₹2400 crore. It is being implemented in phases at the brigade, division, and corps levels of the Army.

Bharat Electronics Limited is a major public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Defence, established in 1954, and works in the fields of communication, radar, and defence electronics. While Defence Research and Development Organisation (1958) and Indian Space Research Organisation (1969) are also important institutions, this specific system was developed by BEL.

Question: Match the following—

List-I	List-II
A. National Space Day	1. 23 August
B. National Voters’ Day	2. 25 January
C. International Women’s Day	3. 8 March
D. World Hindi Day	4. 10 January

(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: b

Solution:
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

National Space Day is observed in India on 23 August. This date is linked with the historic success of Chandrayaan-3 Moon Landing, when India successfully landed on the south pole of the Moon. This achievement established India as a major global power in the field of space science.

National Voters’ Day is celebrated on 25 January, because on this day in 1950, the Election Commission of India was established. Its purpose is to create awareness among citizens, especially youth, about voting and to increase their participation in democracy.

International Women’s Day is celebrated on 8 March. This day is dedicated to women’s rights, equality, and empowerment. Various programs are organized worldwide to promote gender equality.

World Hindi Day is observed on 10 January. It is celebrated in memory of the first World Hindi Conference held in 1975. Its objective is to promote the global spread of the Hindi language and strengthen it at the international level.

Question: By whom was the concept of the Grameen Bank proposed?
(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Amartya Sen
(c) Muhammad Yunus

Answer: c

Solution:
The concept of the Grameen Bank was proposed by Muhammad Yunus, the famous Bangladeshi economist and social entrepreneur. In 1976, he started it as a research project in Bangladesh with the aim of providing small loans (microcredit) without collateral to poor people, especially rural women.

The basic idea behind this concept was that poverty is often caused not by lack of ability, but by lack of access to financial services. Traditional banks usually avoided lending to poor people because they did not have collateral. Muhammad Yunus solved this problem through the group lending system, where members of a group share responsibility for repayment.

After the success of this model, in 1983, the Grameen Bank was formally recognized as an independent bank. For this pioneering work, Muhammad Yunus was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006.

Inspired by this concept, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in India on 2 October 1975. In addition, NABARD (1982) is the apex financial institution for agriculture and rural development in India. Thus, the original credit for the concept of the Grameen Bank goes to Muhammad Yunus.

Question: Which planet has the maximum number of moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune

Answer: b

Solution:
According to the latest scientific data (up to February 2026), the planet with the maximum number of known moons in the Solar System is Saturn. Saturn has around 274 known moons, making it the leading planet in this respect. Saturn is the second-largest planet in the Solar System and is especially famous for its beautiful and extensive ring system.

Saturn completes one revolution around the Sun in about 29 years and 5 months. Its density is the lowest among all planets, even lower than water, so theoretically it would float if placed in water. In the night sky, it appears like a pale yellow star.

The largest moon of Saturn is Titan, which is even larger than the planet Mercury and possesses a dense atmosphere. Besides Titan, many other small and large moons orbit Saturn.

In comparison, Jupiter also has a very large number of moons, and its largest moon Ganymede is the largest moon in the entire Solar System. Uranus has several rings, with major ones named Gamma (γ), Alpha (α), Delta (Δ), Beta (β), and Epsilon. Neptune is often referred to as the green-colored planet.

Question: Which of the following is correct?
(i) There are 100 subjects in the Union List
(ii) There are 61 subjects in the State List
(iii) There are 47 subjects in the Concurrent List

(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (i) and (ii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: a

Solution:
The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India divides powers between the Union and the States through three lists—Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. This provision is described under Article 246.

Originally, the Union List had 97 subjects, the State List had 66 subjects, and the Concurrent List had 47 subjects. Over time, these lists changed because of various constitutional amendments. In particular, after the implementation of GST (Goods and Services Tax), some subjects were removed from both the Union and State Lists. As a result, the present practical count is around 98 subjects in the Union List, 59 in the State List, and 52 in the Concurrent List.

However, from the traditional exam perspective, the Union List is generally taken as 100 subjects and the State List as 61 subjects, so statements (i) and (ii) are considered correct.

Subjects in the Union List can be legislated upon only by the Central Government, such as defence, foreign policy, currency, railways, and communication. Subjects in the State List are handled by the State Governments, such as police, agriculture, local governance, and public health. Subjects in the Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both the Centre and the States, such as education, marriage, forests, and labour unions.

Question: The Lakshman Temple of Khajuraho is associated with which deity?
(a) Vishnu
(b) Shiva
(c) Brahma
(d) Ganesha

Answer: a

Solution:
The Lakshman Temple of Khajuraho is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is one of the most prominent and ancient temples of the Khajuraho temple group in Madhya Pradesh. It was built in the 10th century by the Chandela king Yashovarman. This temple is an excellent example of Nagara style architecture and is constructed with red sandstone. Its height is about 30 meters.

The temple houses an idol of Lord Vishnu in a three-faced form, which includes the human, Narasimha, and Varaha manifestations. The walls of the temple are richly decorated with intricate carvings of deities, apsaras, animals, and symbolic sculptures.

Around the base of the temple, there is a continuous row of elephant sculptures, which further enhances its artistic beauty. The temples of Khajuraho Group of Monuments are world famous for their sculpture and architecture and have been declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

In comparison, Siddhivinayak Temple is associated with Lord Ganesha, Somnath Temple with Lord Shiva, and Pushkar Temple with Lord Brahma.

Question: Which of the following is related to the painting tradition of Bihar?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Mughal style
(c) Mona Lisa
(d) Bani Thani

Answer: a

Solution:
Madhubani painting, also known as Mithila painting, is a famous traditional folk art of Bihar that originated in the Mithila region. It is mainly created by women, which is why it is also known as a women’s painting style.

This art form uses natural colors and is created on walls, paper, cloth, and other surfaces. It usually depicts religious, mythological, and cultural themes, such as the marriage of Ram and Sita, Krishna Leela, deities, and nature.

Evidence of Madhubani painting is also found in the work “Kirti Pataka” by the Maithili poet Vidyapati. The credit for bringing this art form to global recognition goes to W. G. Archer, who noticed these paintings while surveying the region after the 1934 Bihar earthquake and introduced them to the world.

Today, Madhubani paintings can also be seen at railway stations, government buildings, and public places, such as Patna Railway Station and Madhubani Station walls.

Among the other options, Mughal style is a courtly painting tradition, Mona Lisa is the famous painting by Leonardo da Vinci, and Bani Thani is a painting style from the Kishangarh region of Rajasthan.

Question: When was Islam established?
(a) 6th century
(b) 10th century
(c) 7th century
(d) 9th century

Answer: c

Solution:
The establishment of Islam is considered to have taken place in the 7th century CE. The founder of this religion was Prophet Muhammad, who was born in 570 CE in Mecca, Arabia. His father’s name was Abdullah, and his mother’s name was Amina. The word “Islam” comes from Arabic, meaning “complete submission to Allah.”

In 610 CE, Prophet Muhammad received the first divine revelation in the Cave of Hira near Mecca, which is considered the foundation of Islam. After this, he preached the message of monotheism (belief in one God) and taught people to worship Allah.

In 622 CE, he migrated from Mecca to Medina, an event known as the Hijra. This marks the beginning of the Islamic calendar (Hijri era) and is one of the most significant events in Islamic history.

On 8 June 632 CE, Prophet Muhammad passed away in Medina. His teachings and revelations were compiled into the Quran, the holy book of Islam.

In India, Islam first arrived through Arab traders, and after the conquest of Sindh by Muhammad bin Qasim in 712 CE, it spread further. Major Islamic festivals include Eid-ul-Fitr, Eid-ul-Adha, Muharram, and Milad-un-Nabi.

Question: Where was the first Dolphin Research Centre established?
(a) Patna
(b) Lucknow
(c) Kolkata
(d) None of these

Answer: a

Solution:
India’s first Dolphin Research Centre has been established in Patna, the capital of Bihar. It was inaugurated on 4 March 2024 by Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar. The centre is located on the Patna University campus near the banks of the Ganga River, which provides scientists and researchers easy access to study the Gangetic Dolphin close to its natural habitat.

The main objective of this research centre is the scientific study of the conservation, behaviour, reproduction, and life cycle of the Gangetic Dolphin. The Gangetic Dolphin is India’s National Aquatic Animal, and its scientific name is Platanista gangetica. This freshwater species is especially known for its echolocation ability, through which it uses sound waves to locate prey.

The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary in Bhagalpur district of Bihar is another major conservation area for this species. In addition, the highest dolphin population in India has been reported from Uttar Pradesh.

The government is also running several dolphin conservation programmes aimed at protecting their natural habitat and reducing the threat of extinction.

Question: Match the following — Gross State Product Growth in Bihar (2020–21)

List-I	List-II
(i) Air travel	(a) 54.3%
(ii) Transport service	(b) 33%
(iii) Road management	(c) 31%

(a) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c
(b) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a
(c) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b
(d) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c

Answer: b

Solution:
According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2021–22, despite the COVID-19 pandemic and lockdown, Bihar’s economy showed notable growth during 2020–21. During this period, Bihar’s Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) grew by nearly 2.5%, which was better than the national average.

Different sectors recorded different growth rates. The Air Transport sector showed around 33% growth, reflecting improved connectivity and a rise in passenger traffic. The Transport Services sector recorded nearly 31% growth, indicating improvement in goods and passenger transport activities.

The highest growth was seen in Road Management and Road Infrastructure, which increased by about 54.3%. This mainly reflects strong government investment in road construction, repair, maintenance, and overall infrastructure development.

Question: Who was Megasthenes during the Mauryan period?
(a) Greek traveller
(b) Greek ambassador who came to the court of Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Greek invader
(d) Minister in the court of Chandragupta Maurya

Answer: b

Solution:
Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya. He came to India mainly to strengthen diplomatic relations between the two rulers and to gather detailed information about Mauryan India.

During his stay, Megasthenes carefully studied the social, political, economic, and administrative systems of the Mauryan Empire. He compiled his observations and experiences in the famous book “Indica”, which is considered one of the most important historical sources for ancient India.

He gave a detailed account of the Mauryan administration, city planning, agriculture, caste system, and various aspects of Indian society. His description of Pataliputra (modern Patna) is especially important, as he highlighted its grandeur, organized streets, and advanced urban planning.

Before coming to India, Megasthenes had earlier served as Seleucus’s representative in Arachosia, and later he was sent to the Mauryan court. His writings provide valuable insights into the political and social structure of Mauryan India.

Question: For what reason can a small car be accelerated faster than a big car?
(a) Velocity
(b) Momentum
(c) Mass
(d) Acceleration

Answer: c

Solution:
The main reason a small car can be accelerated faster than a big car is its lower mass. This concept is based on Newton’s Second Law of Motion, according to which force equals mass multiplied by acceleration (F = m × a).

If the same force is applied to two objects, acceleration becomes inversely proportional to mass. This means the smaller the mass, the greater the acceleration produced. Therefore, a small car, having less mass, gains speed more quickly than a bigger car under the same applied force.

On the other hand, a bigger car has greater mass, and therefore it also has greater inertia. Inertia is the property of a body by which it resists any change in its state of rest or motion. Because of this, a heavy car requires more force and more time to change its motion.

In addition, if two bodies have the same kinetic energy, the one with greater mass will have greater momentum. Similarly, if two bodies have the same momentum, the body with smaller mass will possess greater kinetic energy.

Thus, it is clear that the main reason a small car accelerates faster is its lower mass.

Question: Match the population growth rate data (2013)

List-I	List-II
(a) Bihar	(1) 20%
(b) Maharashtra	(2) 14%
(c) Haryana	(3) 15%

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3
(b) a-2, b-3, c-1
(c) a-2, b-1, c-3
(d) a-3, b-1, c-2

Answer: a

Solution:
Population growth rate shows the percentage increase in the population of a state over a fixed period of time. In this question, the given states Bihar, Maharashtra, and Haryana have to be matched with their respective growth percentages.

The population growth rate of Bihar is taken as around 20%, so it correctly matches with (1) 20%. Although according to the 2011 Census, Bihar’s decadal growth rate was about 25.42%, among the given options 20% is the best match.

The population growth rate of Maharashtra is considered around 14% here. While the 2011 Census figure was close to 16%, the most suitable match from the options is (2) 14%.

The population growth rate of Haryana is taken as around 15%. The actual decadal growth rate was around 19.90%, but according to the provided choices 15% is the appropriate match.

So the correct matching is: Bihar → 20%, Maharashtra → 14%, Haryana → 15%.

Question: How was the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961) different from the First Five-Year Plan in terms of approach toward industrialization?
(a) It continued to focus completely only on agriculture.
(b) Greater priority was given to the private sector than the public sector.
(c) Focus shifted from heavy industries to light industries.
(d) Emphasis was laid on the development of heavy industries.

Answer: d

Solution:
The objective of India’s Five-Year Plans was to promote the country’s economic development in a systematic way. There was a clear difference in the approach of the First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) and the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961).

The First Five-Year Plan mainly focused on agriculture and irrigation. At that time India was primarily an agrarian economy, and increasing food grain production was the biggest need. Therefore, agriculture, irrigation projects, and rural development were given top priority.

The Second Five-Year Plan, implemented between 1956 and 1961, was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model. In this plan, special emphasis was given to heavy industries in order to accelerate industrialization.

During this period, major steel plants such as Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela were established. Investment in minerals, machine-building, and basic industries was significantly increased. The public sector was given special importance, and a major share of total investment was directed toward it.

The main aim of this plan was to establish a socialist pattern of economy and ensure long-term industrial growth.

Question: Where was the Pushkar Kumbh Mela organized?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan

Answer: a

Solution:
The Pushkar Kumbh Mela was organized in Uttarakhand. It was held at Keshav Prayag near Mana village in Chamoli district, where the Alaknanda and Saraswati rivers meet. In the year 2025, this fair was organized from 14 May to 26 May.

This event is held at an interval of 12 years and is considered highly important from a religious point of view. The place is associated with great saints and scholars such as Maharishi Ved Vyasa, Ramanujacharya, and Madhavacharya.

It is important to note that the famous Pushkar Camel Fair is held in Pushkar, Ajmer district of Rajasthan, which is considered the largest camel fair in the world. This should not be confused with the Pushkar Kumbh.

Apart from this, several other important religious and cultural events were also organized in 2025, such as Saraswati Pushkaralu in Telangana, Kashi Tamil Sangamam in Varanasi, and Raulan Festival in Himachal Pradesh.

Question: How many electrons are there in 1 coulomb?
(a) 6 × 10¹⁸
(b) 6 × 10²⁰
(c) 6 × 10¹⁶
(d) 6 × 10¹⁷

Answer: a

Solution:
Coulomb (C) is the SI unit of electric charge. The amount of charge can be expressed in terms of the number of electrons.

According to the quantization of charge principle:

Q = n × e

where
Q = total charge
n = number of electrons
e = charge on one electron = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ coulomb

If Q = 1 coulomb, then

n = Q / e
= 1 / (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹)
= 6.25 × 10¹⁸

Thus, 1 coulomb of charge contains approximately 6 × 10¹⁸ electrons.

Electric current is the rate of flow of charge, and its SI unit is Ampere.

1 Ampere = 1 Coulomb / second

The SI unit of electric resistance is Ohm, and Volt is the unit of potential difference.

Therefore, 1 coulomb contains approximately 6 × 10¹⁸ electrons.

Question: Who was chosen as the ‘Player of the Tournament’ in the Women’s World Cup 2025?
(a) Harmanpreet Kaur
(b) Harleen Deol
(c) Deepti Sharma
(d) Smriti Mandhana

Answer: c

Solution:
The ‘Player of the Tournament’ award in the Women’s World Cup 2025 was given to Indian women’s cricket team all-rounder Deepti Sharma. She delivered an outstanding performance throughout the tournament, taking 22 wickets in 9 matches and also scoring 215 runs, which made her one of the most crucial players in India’s success.

Her performance in the final match was also match-winning, where she took 5 wickets and scored 58 runs against South Africa. This brilliant all-round display played a major role in India’s victory. India defeated South Africa by 52 runs in the final played at Navi Mumbai, creating history by winning its first ICC Women’s ODI World Cup title.

India had earlier reached the final in 2005 and 2017, but on both occasions the team lost to Australia and England respectively.

In the final, the ‘Player of the Match’ award was given to Shafali Verma. The ICC announced a prize money of 4.48 million US dollars (about ₹39.55 crore) for the winning team, while the BCCI declared a cash reward of ₹51 crore for the Indian women’s team.

In addition, on 23 November 2025, India also defeated Nepal in Colombo to win the first Blind Women’s T-20 World Cup, marking another major achievement in women’s cricket.

Question: Who won the Australian Open 2025?
(a) Carlos Alcaraz
(b) Jannik Sinner
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Andy Murray

Answer: b

Solution:
The men’s singles champion of the Australian Open 2025 was Jannik Sinner of Italy. He won the title by defeating Alexander Zverev of Germany in the final. This tournament is the first Grand Slam of the year, held annually in Australia.

The Australian Open is played on a hard court. Similarly, the US Open is also played on hard court, while the French Open is played on clay court, and Wimbledon is played on grass court.

In the other Grand Slam tournaments of 2025, both Jannik Sinner and Carlos Alcaraz dominated the tennis world. In the French Open 2025, Carlos Alcaraz emerged as the champion, while Jannik Sinner finished as the runner-up. In Wimbledon 2025, Jannik Sinner once again won the title, with Carlos Alcaraz as runner-up.

In the women’s category, Madison Keys (USA) won the Australian Open 2025 title, while Aryna Sabalenka was the runner-up.

Thus, Jannik Sinner had a remarkable year in 2025, firmly establishing himself among the world’s top tennis players.

Question: Match the following—

List-I	List-II
(a) Dispute between Bihar State and the Union of India	(i) Supreme Court
(b) Dispute in a district court of Haryana	(ii) High Court
(c) Integrated judiciary	(iii) Unitary feature of the Constitution
(d) Centre-State relations	(iv) Federal feature

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(c) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(d) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

Answer: a

Solution:
This matching is very important for understanding the Indian judiciary and the federal structure of the Constitution.

First, if a dispute arises between Bihar State and the Union of India, it goes directly to the Supreme Court. This provision comes under Article 131 of the Constitution, under which the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and the States. This means such cases are heard directly by the Supreme Court.

Second, if a dispute arises in a district court of a state like Haryana, an appeal against that decision is made in the High Court. Civil cases at the district level are generally heard by a civil judge, while serious criminal cases are heard by a sessions judge, but the final appellate authority at the state level is the High Court.

Third, India follows an integrated judiciary system. This means the entire country has a single judicial structure—with the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts and subordinate courts. This reflects the unitary feature of the Constitution, because one common judicial system applies throughout the country.

Fourth, Centre-State relations represent the federal feature of the Constitution. In this system, powers are clearly divided between the Centre and the States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Other federal features include dual government, written Constitution, supremacy of the Constitution, independent judiciary, and a rigid amendment process.

Question: Which statements are correct regarding the Hooghly Industrial Region?
Statements:
(i) It is located on the banks of the Hooghly River.
(ii) It is close to Kolkata city.
(iii) It is near the Luni River.
(iv) It is near the Arabian Sea.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) All

Answer: a

Solution:
The Hooghly Industrial Region is one of the major industrial regions of India, located in West Bengal along the banks of the Hooghly River. This region developed mainly around the Kolkata metropolitan area and is considered one of India’s most important industrial and commercial centers.

First, statement (i) is correct because this industrial region has developed along the Hooghly River. Being located near the river has supported water transport, industrial water supply, and trade activities, which helped in rapid industrial growth.

Statement (ii) is also correct because this region lies very close to Kolkata city. Kolkata is one of India’s major ports, and this strategic advantage led to the rapid development of industries in the region. Major industries here include jute, engineering, chemicals, and textiles.

Statement (iii) is incorrect because the Luni River flows in Rajasthan and has no connection with this industrial region.

Statement (iv) is also incorrect because the Hooghly River drains into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

Question: With the support of Bhashini, which institution launched the ‘Sarathi App’?
(a) SBI
(b) SEBI
(c) ISRO
(d) Open Network for Digital Commerce

Answer: b

Solution:
The ‘Sarathi App’ was launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) with the support of Bhashini. Bhashini is an initiative of the Government of India aimed at making technology and government services accessible in Indian languages through digital platforms. It is part of the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM) and provides AI-based multilingual language solutions.

This app was developed by SEBI to promote financial literacy among investors. Through this app, ordinary citizens can learn in simple language about the stock market, mutual funds, investment risks, fraud prevention, and investment-related regulations.

With the support of Bhashini, the app has become multilingual, allowing information to be accessed in different Indian languages. This makes it especially useful for people in rural areas and regional language speakers, who can now understand financial concepts more easily.

SEBI was established in 1988 and received statutory status in 1992. Its headquarters is in Mumbai. Its main objective is to protect investors’ interests and regulate the capital market.

Other options like SBI (banking institution), ISRO (space organization), and ONDC (digital commerce platform) are not related to the launch of this app.

Question: Which tissue provides flexibility in plants?
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) None of these

Answer: b

Solution:
The tissue responsible for providing flexibility in plants is Collenchyma. It is a type of living tissue mainly found in the growing parts of plants, such as the stem, petiole (leaf stalk), and leaf veins.

The cells of collenchyma are elongated, and their cell walls are unevenly thickened at the corners. This thickening is mainly due to cellulose and pectin, which makes the tissue both strong and flexible.

This tissue provides mechanical support to plants while also allowing them to bend and withstand wind or external forces. That is why plants usually bend in strong winds instead of breaking.

Parenchyma is mainly responsible for food storage and photosynthesis, whereas Sclerenchyma is a dead tissue that provides hardness and rigidity, not flexibility.

Thus, flexibility in plants is due to the Collenchyma tissue.

Question: Which operation was launched on 17 May 2020 to bring Indians back from abroad during the coronavirus pandemic?
(a) Vande Bharat Mission
(b) Operation Parakram
(c) Air Mission
(d) Operation Devi Shakti

Answer: a

Solution:
During the COVID-19 pandemic, strict restrictions were imposed on international flights worldwide from March 2020, due to which lakhs of Indian citizens were stranded in different countries. In this unprecedented situation, the Government of India launched the “Vande Bharat Mission” on 17 May 2020, which is considered the largest civilian evacuation mission undertaken by India.

Under this mission, Air India and Air India Express operated special flights, while the Indian Navy also assisted through “Operation Samudra Setu” to bring citizens back by sea routes. The Indian Air Force and Indian embassies abroad also played important roles in this multi-dimensional operation.

The mission was carried out in several phases, bringing back Indians from the USA, UK, Gulf countries, Europe, Asia, and Africa. During this process, priority was given to elderly people, pregnant women, students, and those stranded in emergency situations.

This mission proved to be even larger than the evacuation of around 1.77 lakh Indians from Kuwait during the Gulf War of 1990–91. In addition, the mission also aimed to maintain supply chains and assist the Indian diaspora abroad.

Operation Parakram (2001–02) was related to military deployment along the India-Pakistan border, while Operation Devi Shakti (2021) was launched for evacuating Indians from Afghanistan.

Question: The quantitative value of force is derived from which law of Newton’s motion?
(a) Newton’s First Law
(b) Newton’s Second Law
(c) Newton’s Third Law
(d) Newton’s Law of Gravitation

Answer: b

Solution:
Newton’s Second Law of Motion is a fundamental principle of physics that establishes the quantitative relationship between force, mass, and acceleration. This law states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the unbalanced force applied on it and takes place in the direction of the force.

Mathematically, it is expressed as:
F = dp/dt, where p = mv (momentum).
If the mass remains constant, the equation simplifies to:
F = m × a

This is the basic formula used to calculate the value of force.

Through this law, we can determine how much force is acting on an object if its mass and acceleration are known. That is why it is called the quantitative law of force.

Several important concepts are also derived from this law, such as:
• Momentum = mass × velocity
• Impulse = force × time
• Relationship between force and acceleration

Newton’s First Law only explains inertia and the state of balance, while the Third Law explains the principle of action and reaction. The actual measurable value of force is obtained only from the Second Law.

Question: If an object has ______, then it has the _____ to do _____.
(a) energy, capacity, work
(b) work, capacity, energy
(c) capacity, work, energy
(d) work, energy, capacity

Answer: a

Solution:
In physics, energy is defined as the capacity to do work. This means that if an object possesses energy, it is capable of performing work. This is one of the most fundamental concepts in physics and applies to almost all physical processes.

Both energy and work have the SI unit Joule (J), and both are scalar quantities. Energy exists in various forms, such as kinetic energy, potential energy, chemical energy, electrical energy, and thermal energy.

The formula of kinetic energy is ½mv², which arises due to the motion of an object, whereas potential energy is due to the position or height of an object.

The relationship between work and energy is explained by the Work-Energy Theorem, according to which the total work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy:
W = ΔKE

The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can only be transformed from one form to another.

The rate of doing work is called power, whose SI unit is Watt (W).

Question: Which journalist was recently honored with the Agriculture Media Award 2025?
(a) Raghavan
(b) Amshi Prasannakumar
(c) V. Narayanan
(d) Sunil Amrith

Answer: b

Solution:
Recently, Amshi Prasannakumar was honored with the Agriculture Media Award 2025. Senior journalist Amshi Prasannakumar from Mysuru was selected for the Hombale Samhita Harini Kumar Alumni Agriculture Media Award 2025. This honor was conferred on him for his outstanding contribution to agricultural journalism, especially for spreading awareness among farmers through print and electronic media about new agricultural technologies, crop protection, modern farming methods, and government schemes.

The Agriculture Media Award is given to journalists who effectively bring issues related to farming, rural economy, agricultural research, climate change, fertilizer management, irrigation, and farmers’ problems to society and policymakers.

Amshi Prasannakumar has been active in agriculture-based journalism for a long time and has made farmer-friendly information easily accessible in simple language.

This award is considered highly significant because it strengthens the role of media in agriculture, which is the backbone of India’s economy, with a large section of the rural population depending on it.

Among the other options, V. Narayanan is the current Chairman of ISRO, who was honored with the G.P. Birla Memorial Award 2025, while Sunil Amrith received the British Academy Book Prize 2025 for his book The Burning Earth.

Question: Who presided over the Vienna Congress?
(a) Napoleon III
(b) Sun Yat-sen
(c) Ferdinand
(d) Metternich

Answer: d

Solution:
The Congress of Vienna (1815) was presided over by Klemens von Metternich, the Chancellor of Austria. This conference was organized after the final defeat of Napoleon Bonaparte with the aim of establishing peace, political stability, and balance of power in Europe.

Major European powers such as Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria participated in this conference. Its main objective was to end the political turmoil caused by the French Revolution and Napoleonic Wars and restore the old monarchical order in Europe.

Metternich was a strong supporter of reactionary ideology. He opposed the ideas of nationalism, liberalism, democracy, and republicanism, as these ideas had emerged from the French Revolution. His goal was to maintain stability in Europe on the principles of Legitimacy and Balance of Power.

As a result of the Vienna Congress, the Napoleonic era came to an end, and the period from 1815 to 1848 is known as the “Age of Metternich.” During this time, monarchical powers in Europe tried to suppress liberal movements.

In history, this conference is considered an important turning point in the power politics of Europe.

Question: During World War II, after the American attack on which place in Japan did the war come to an end?
(a) Tokyo
(b) Hiroshima
(c) Nagoya
(d) Yokohama

Answer: b

Solution:
In the final phase of World War II, the United States dropped the first atomic bomb on Hiroshima, Japan, on 6 August 1945. The bomb was named “Little Boy”, which was based on Uranium-235. This attack immediately caused massive destruction and huge loss of life and property.

Three days later, on 9 August 1945, the United States dropped the second atomic bomb, “Fat Man,” on Nagasaki, which was based on Plutonium-239. These two attacks completely weakened Japan’s military and economic strength.

After these atomic bombings, Emperor Hirohito accepted surrender on 15 August 1945, which led to the end of World War II in Asia. Later, on 2 September 1945, Japan formally signed the surrender document before General MacArthur aboard the American battleship USS Missouri in Tokyo Bay.

America had entered the war on 8 December 1941, after Japan attacked Pearl Harbor on 7 December 1941.

The atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki are considered among the most destructive events in human history.

Question: By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, how many Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution?
(a) 4 Fundamental Duties
(b) 6 Fundamental Duties
(c) 10 Fundamental Duties
(d) 12 Fundamental Duties

Answer: c

Solution:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution. Through this amendment, 10 Fundamental Duties were initially included under Article 51A in Part IV-A of the Constitution. The original Constitution of 1950 did not mention Fundamental Duties.

The main objective of adding these duties was to develop a sense of responsibility and duty among citizens towards the Constitution, the nation, the national flag, national symbols, and public property. This provision was added on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of the Soviet Union (USSR). It was an attempt to create a balance between rights and duties. Initially, their number was 10, but later the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added one more duty related to providing education to children between 6 and 14 years, making the total 11.

Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, which means they cannot be directly enforced in a court of law. However, they are considered the moral and constitutional obligations of citizens.

Question: Under which Articles is the Right to Freedom of Religion provided?
(a) 25–28
(b) 14–18
(c) 19–22
(d) 23–24

Answer: a

Solution:
In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Freedom of Religion is provided under Articles 25 to 28. This right is a part of Part III (Fundamental Rights) and establishes India as a Secular State.

Article 25 gives every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice, and propagate any religion.

Article 26 grants religious denominations the freedom to manage their own religious affairs.

According to Article 27, the state is prohibited from imposing taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.

Article 28 provides freedom regarding religious instruction in educational institutions, especially government-funded institutions.

This right is equally available to all citizens and strengthens the multi-religious structure of India.

Other options include:
Articles 14–18 → Right to Equality
Articles 19–22 → Right to Freedom
Articles 23–24 → Right against Exploitation

Question: Which of the following metals starts reacting with O₂ and may catch fire when left open?
(a) Na
(b) Zn
(c) Cu
(d) Fe

Answer: a

Solution:
Sodium (Na) is a highly reactive alkali metal. When left exposed, it immediately reacts with oxygen (O₂) and moisture in the air, and may even catch fire. That is why it is usually stored in kerosene oil.

Sodium has only one electron in its outermost shell, which it loses very easily. This makes it highly reactive.

Its reaction with air and moisture is exothermic:
2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂ + Heat

The hydrogen gas produced in this reaction may catch fire.

Sodium belongs to Group 1 (IA) of the periodic table, which includes Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, and Fr, known as the alkali metals.

Zn, Cu, and Fe do not react so rapidly with oxygen at normal temperature.

Question: On Ramanujan’s birthday, when is National Mathematics Day celebrated?
(a) 22 December
(b) 19 December
(c) 18 December
(d) 21 December

Answer: a

Solution:
The birth anniversary of the great Indian mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan, 22 December, is celebrated in India as National Mathematics Day. This day was declared by the Government of India in 2011, and the year 2012 was observed as National Mathematics Year.

Ramanujan was born on 22 December 1887 in Erode, Tamil Nadu. He made extraordinary contributions in the fields of number theory, infinite series, partition theory, and mathematical analysis. Despite having limited formal education, his work gave a new direction to world mathematics.

In 1918, he became the second Indian to be elected to the Royal Society, which reflects his exceptional mathematical genius.

Among the other options:
19 December → Goa Liberation Day
18 December → Minority Rights Day / World Arabic Language Day
21 December → World Meditation Day

In 2025, the SASTRA Ramanujan Prize was awarded to Dr. Alexander Smith (USA) for his work on problems related to homogeneous numbers.

Question: Which agriculture app has been launched by the Bihar Government?
(a) Bihar Krishi App
(b) Krishi Suvidha App
(c) Harit Bihar App
(d) Vihaan Paper

Answer: a

Solution:
The Bihar Government has launched the “Bihar Krishi App.” This app is an important digital platform developed to bring digital transformation in the agriculture sector of the state. Its main objective is to connect farmers, agriculture coordinators, agriculture officers, and departmental officials on a single digital platform, ensuring easy access to schemes, subsidies, crop advisories, weather-based information, and agricultural services.

This app provides farmers with information related to seeds, fertilizers, agricultural machinery, crop insurance, government subsidies, weather updates, soil testing, crop disease management, and market updates. Through this, farmers can directly and transparently avail the benefits of government schemes.

The Bihar Government has also launched several other useful apps related to agriculture and disaster management. Through the NITISH app, the disaster management authority provides alerts about disasters around 30 minutes in advance. The BeFIQR app was launched by the Water Resources Department for information related to floods and droughts. Similarly, the Indravajra app was launched to provide lightning warnings nearly 40 minutes in advance.

The main objective of the Bihar Krishi App is to promote data-based decision-making, transparency, and increase farmers’ income in the agriculture sector.

Question: When is Panchayati Raj Day celebrated?
(a) 22 April
(b) 23 April
(c) 24 April
(d) 25 April

Answer: c

Solution:
In India, Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated on 24 April. This day highlights the importance of local self-government and democratic decentralization.

This date is significant because on 24 April 1993, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force. Through this amendment, Panchayati Raj Institutions were granted constitutional status.

In 2010, the Government of India officially declared 24 April as National Panchayati Raj Day. The objective is to strengthen the role of institutions such as Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad, promote public participation, and empower rural democracy.

Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, provisions related to Panchayati Raj were added in Part IX of the Constitution (Articles 243 to 243-O). Along with this, 29 subjects were assigned to Panchayats under the 11th Schedule.

Other options include:
22 April → Earth Day
23 April → World Book and Copyright Day
25 April → World Malaria Day

Question: On whom do Fundamental Duties apply?
(a) Citizens of India
(b) Foreign citizens
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer: a

Solution:
Fundamental Duties apply only to the citizens of India. They do not apply to foreign nationals or legal entities.

Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A. They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Initially, the number of Fundamental Duties was 10, which was later increased to 11 by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Their objective is to develop a sense of responsibility among citizens towards the Constitution, national flag, national anthem, public property, scientific temper, environmental protection, national unity, and education.

These duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts. However, they are considered important moral obligations and a foundation of nation-building.

The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of the former Soviet Union (USSR).

Question: Which of the following river-dam pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Kaveri River – Mettur Dam
(b) Mahanadi – Hirakud
(c) Krishna River – Almatti
(d) Tapti River – Tilaiya

Answer: d

Solution:
The question asks which river and dam pair is incorrectly matched. The pair Tapti River – Tilaiya Dam is incorrect.

Tilaiya Dam is actually built on the Barakar River, located in Koderma district of Jharkhand. It was the first dam constructed by the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) and was completed in 1953. It is used for flood control, irrigation, and power generation.

The other options are correctly matched:
• Kaveri River – Mettur Dam
• Mahanadi – Hirakud Dam
• Krishna River – Almatti Dam

Hirakud Dam, located in Odisha, is one of the longest dams in India. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is another major multipurpose project on the Krishna River.

The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established in 1948 and is considered India’s first multipurpose river valley project. Its model was inspired by the Tennessee Valley Project (1933) of the USA.

Question: Aluminium is used in cooking utensils. Which properties of aluminium are responsible for this?
(i) Good thermal conductivity
(ii) Good electrical conductivity
(iii) Malleability
(iv) Melting point
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer: d

Solution:
Aluminium is mainly used in cooking utensils because of its good thermal conductivity and sufficiently high melting point. Therefore, the correct option is (i) and (iv).

The most important property required in a metal used for cooking utensils is that it should be a good conductor of heat, so that the heat supplied at one point spreads uniformly throughout the utensil. Aluminium is an excellent conductor of heat, which helps food cook quickly and evenly. This is its greatest advantage.

The second important property is its adequately high melting point. Aluminium has a melting point of about 660°C, which is much higher than the normal temperature used in cooking. Therefore, it does not melt when heated on gas stoves or other sources and remains safe for use.

Electrical conductivity is useful for wires, but it is not directly related to cooking utensils. Malleability helps in shaping the metal, but since the question asks about suitability for cooking, the main reasons are thermal conductivity and melting point.

Aluminium is also convenient for making utensils because it is a light metal. In the order of electrical conductivity, the sequence is:
Ag > Cu > Al > Fe

Question: What is the aqueous solution of sodium chloride called?
(a) Antacid
(b) Caffeic acid
(c) Brine
(d) Baking soda

Answer: c

Solution:
The aqueous solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) is called brine. When common salt dissolves in water to form a concentrated or saturated solution, it is known as brine.

Brine is very important from an industrial point of view. Its most important use is in the chlor-alkali process. In this process, brine is electrolyzed to obtain chlorine gas (Cl₂), hydrogen gas (H₂), and sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Chemical reaction:
2NaCl(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)

The sodium hydroxide obtained in this process is also called caustic soda. It is used in the soap, paper, detergent, and textile industries.

Brine is also used in food preservation, such as preserving pickles, fish, and meat for long periods. In addition, it is used in refrigeration mixtures.

Among the other options:
Antacid → medicine used to reduce stomach acidity
Baking soda → sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃)
Caffeic acid → an organic acid

Therefore, the aqueous solution of NaCl is called brine.

Question: “Vivad se Vishwas Yojana” is related to which of the following?
(a) Taxation
(b) Border security
(c) Women empowerment
(d) Education

Answer: a

Solution:
The “Vivad se Vishwas Yojana” is related to taxation. This scheme was launched by the government with the objective of quickly resolving pending tax disputes and reducing litigation.

The aim of this scheme is to settle old disputes between taxpayers and the Income Tax Department on the basis of mutual trust. Under this, if the taxpayer pays the disputed tax amount within the prescribed time, they are given relief in interest and penalties.

The scheme was expanded in the Union Budget 2023–24, and it was considered especially important for providing relief to MSMEs (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises) during the COVID-19 period.

Vivad se Vishwas Scheme 2.0 was officially implemented by the Central Government from 1 October 2024. Its objective was to provide speedy resolution of tax disputes and reduce the number of pending cases in courts and tribunals.

Tax is a mandatory legal payment imposed by the government. It is broadly divided into two parts:
• Direct taxes – Income tax, corporate tax, gift tax
• Indirect taxes – GST, sales tax, etc.

This scheme is considered an important step toward increasing transparency, compliance, and trust between the government and taxpayers.

Question: Which of the following animals does not have its natural habitat in India?
(a) Kangaroo
(b) One-horned rhinoceros
(c) Elephant
(d) Asiatic lion

Answer: a

Solution:
The kangaroo is an animal whose natural habitat is not found in India. It is mainly a unique mammal of the Australian continent and is considered a major part of that ecosystem. Australia is commonly known in general knowledge as the “Land of Kangaroo.”

The kangaroo is a marsupial mammal, which means the female has a pouch on her abdomen where the baby develops.

Apart from kangaroos, Australia is also home to unique animals such as the koala, platypus, and lyrebird. The koala feeds on eucalyptus leaves, while the platypus is an unusual egg-laying mammal.

In India, all the other options have natural habitats:
• The one-horned rhinoceros is found in Kaziranga National Park (Assam) and Jaldapara (West Bengal)
• The Asiatic lion is naturally found only in the Gir Forest of Gujarat
• Elephants are found in many Indian states, with Karnataka having the highest population

India has very rich wildlife diversity, but the kangaroo is entirely a unique biological identity of Australia, which is why it is not naturally found in India.

Question: Consider the following:
(a) Net National Product at market price
(b) Other current transfers received from the rest of the world

The above features describe which of the following?
(a) Gross National Product
(b) Net National Product
(c) National Disposable Income
(d) Personal Disposable Income

Answer: c

Solution:
This feature describes National Disposable Income (NDI). National Disposable Income is the total income available with the residents of a country for consumption and saving.

It includes two major components:

Net National Product at Market Price (NNP at MP)
Net current transfers received from the rest of the world

Formula:
National Disposable Income = NNP at MP + Net current transfers from abroad

Current transfers received from abroad include remittances, donations, grants, and money sent by Indians working in foreign countries. These increase the disposable income of a country, so they are added to National Disposable Income.

This indicator reflects the real purchasing power of an economy. It shows how much total income is available in the country for spending and investment.

Personal Disposable Income only refers to the income available with individuals after tax deductions, whereas National Disposable Income includes private sector income, government sector income, and current transfers from abroad.

Question: Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sanskriti ke Chaar Adhyay – Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
(b) Poet from Bihar elected to Rajya Sabha – Mohan Lal Mahato
(c) Major Bhojpuri writer – Raghuveer Narayan
(d) Poet of Maithili language – Vidyapati

Answer: b

Solution:
In this question, the incorrectly matched pair is the one with Mohan Lal Mahato. The major poet from Bihar who was elected to the Rajya Sabha was Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’, whereas Mohan Lal Mahato ‘Viyogi’ was made a member of the Bihar Legislative Council.

The correct matching is as follows:

Sanskriti ke Chaar Adhyay → Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
Poet from Bihar elected to Rajya Sabha → Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
Major Bhojpuri writer → Raghuveer Narayan
Poet of Maithili language → Vidyapati

Ramdhari Singh Dinkar was one of the greatest nationalist poets of Hindi literature. He was elected to the Rajya Sabha in 1952 and served for two consecutive terms. His famous works include Rashmirathi, Kurukshetra, Urvashi, Renuka, and Parashuram ki Pratiksha. He also received the Jnanpith Award for Urvashi.

Raghuveer Narayan is regarded as a very important writer of Bhojpuri literature. His famous work “Batohiya” is given respect equal to Vande Mataram in the Bhojpuri-speaking region.

Vidyapati was the immortal poet of the Maithili language and is known as the “Maithil Kokil.” His famous works include Padavali, Kirtilata, and Kirtipataka.

Question: What is included in money?
(a) Only currency in circulation
(b) Only demand deposits
(c) Currency in circulation and demand deposits
(d) None of the above

Answer: c

Solution:
In economics, money includes both currency in circulation and demand deposits.

Currency in circulation includes the notes and coins available with the public. Demand deposits refer to the money deposited in bank accounts that can be used anytime through cheques, ATM withdrawals, UPI, net banking, or instant withdrawal methods.

In the modern economy, not only cash is considered money, but also the amount kept in banks that can be directly used for payments. That is why demand deposits are considered an important part of the money supply.

The main functions of money are:

Medium of exchange
Measure of value
Store of value
Standard of deferred payments
Means of value transfer

In ancient times, the barter system existed, but due to its limitations, the money system developed. Modern banking and digital payments have made demand deposits even more important.

According to economists Francis A. Walker and Hartley Withers:
“Money is what money does.”

Question: Based on the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R), choose the correct option—
Assertion (A): Platyhelminthes are also called flatworms.
Reason (R): Their body structure is flattened.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and (R) correctly explains (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: a

Solution:
The organisms of the phylum Platyhelminthes are commonly known as flatworms. This is because their body is dorso-ventrally flattened, meaning it is flat from the back to the belly side. Therefore, both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Main characteristics of these organisms:

Bilateral symmetry
Triploblastic
Acoelomate → they do not have a body cavity
Body is flat like a leaf or ribbon
Most are parasitic

Examples:

Planaria
Liver fluke
Tapeworm

The tapeworm belongs to class Cestoda. Liver fluke is also a parasitic flatworm.

For comparison:

Nematodes → roundworms
Earthworm → soil engineer
Osedax → bone-eating worm

Hence, Platyhelminthes are called flatworms because of their flattened body structure.

Question: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

List-I (Body Function Organ)	List-II (Related Organ/Part)
1. Respiration	a. Oesophagus
2. Excretory passage	b. Ventricle
3. Heart	c. Lung
4. Food intake	d. Urinary bladder

Options:
(a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

Answer: b

Solution:
In this question, body functions need to be matched with their related organs.

Respiration → Lung (1-c): Respiration is related to the lungs because oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange takes place in the lungs. The alveoli inside the lungs are tiny air sacs where the actual gas exchange occurs.
Excretory passage → Urinary bladder (2-d): The urinary bladder stores urine produced by the kidneys for some time before it is expelled through the urethra.
Heart → Ventricle (3-b): The ventricle is the lower chamber of the heart. The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
Food intake → Oesophagus (4-a): After food is swallowed, it passes through the oesophagus into the stomach with the help of peristaltic movement.

Thus, the correct code is: 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a.

Question: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

List-I	List-II
1. Endoplasmic reticulum	a. Lipid synthesis
2. Amoeba	b. Cellulose
3. Plant cell wall	c. Nucleoid
4. Prokaryote	d. Unicellular eukaryote

Options:
(a) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
(b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(c) 1-b, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
(d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Answer: a

Solution:
In this question, the correct matching of structures related to cell biology is required.

Endoplasmic reticulum → Lipid synthesis (1-a): The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is mainly responsible for the synthesis of lipids and steroids. In contrast, the rough ER is related to protein synthesis.
Amoeba → Unicellular eukaryote (2-d): Amoeba is a unicellular eukaryotic organism. It has a well-defined nucleus, so it is placed in the kingdom Protista. It moves and captures food with the help of pseudopodia.
Plant cell wall → Cellulose (3-b): The plant cell wall is mainly made up of cellulose, a complex carbohydrate that provides strength, protection, and a definite shape to the cell.
Prokaryote → Nucleoid (4-c): In prokaryotic cells such as bacteria, there is no well-defined nucleus. The DNA-containing region is called the nucleoid, which acts as the genetic material region.

Thus, the correct code is: 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c.

Question: Statement: Prokaryotes are primitive organisms.
Conclusion:
(i) Nuclear membrane is absent in prokaryotic cells.
(ii) An undeveloped nucleus is present, called nucleoid.

(a) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(b) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(c) Both conclusion (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) Both conclusions are incorrect

Answer: c

Solution:
Prokaryotic organisms are considered the simplest and most primitive forms of cellular life. The word “pro” means primitive and “karyon” means nucleus, so prokaryotic literally means organisms with a primitive nucleus. This group includes bacteria, cyanobacteria, and mycoplasma.

The first conclusion is correct because prokaryotic cells do not have a nuclear membrane. Their DNA is not enclosed inside a well-defined nucleus but remains free in the cytoplasm in a special region. Hence, their nucleus is not considered fully developed.

The second conclusion is also correct because this undeveloped DNA-containing region is called the nucleoid. It is not membrane-bound like the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

In addition, prokaryotic cells do not contain membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum. Only ribosomes are present.

Therefore, both conclusions are correct.

Question: Which pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Moinuddin Chishti — Ajmer
(b) Nizamuddin Auliya — Punjab
(c) Baba Farid — Delhi
(d) Bakhtiyar Kaki — Delhi

Answer: b

Solution:
This question is based on Sufi saints and their associated places.

Moinuddin Chishti — Ajmer: This is correctly matched. His famous dargah is located in Ajmer, Rajasthan, and he is popularly known as Gharib Nawaz.
Nizamuddin Auliya — Punjab: This is the incorrectly matched pair. Nizamuddin Auliya is actually associated with Delhi, where his famous dargah is situated. He was one of the greatest saints of the Chishti order, and Amir Khusro was his famous disciple.
Baba Farid — Delhi: Baba Farid, also known as Fariduddin Ganj-e-Shakar, is mainly associated with the Punjab region, but in medieval Sufi studies his connection with the Delhi Sultanate tradition is also discussed.
Bakhtiyar Kaki — Delhi: This is correct. His dargah is located in Mehrauli, Delhi, and he was one of the important disciples of Moinuddin Chishti.

Therefore, only Nizamuddin Auliya — Punjab is the wrongly matched pair.

Question: Where was the Monsoon Croaks Bio-blitz Festival 2025 organized?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Pune
(d) Mumbai

Answer: a

Solution:
In the year 2025, the Monsoon Croaks Bio-blitz Festival was organized in Kerala. This is not a traditional festival but a scientific biodiversity and citizen science event. It was organized by the Kerala Forest Research Institute (KFRI).

The main objective of this program is to document different species of frogs during the monsoon season. Kerala, especially the Western Ghats, is famous for amphibian biodiversity. During monsoon, frogs become highly active and their croaking sounds increase, making identification easier.

Students, researchers, nature lovers, and citizens participated in this campaign. They were encouraged to upload frog sounds, photos, and habitat details through a mobile app. This helps scientists in species identification and conservation.

Frogs belong to the amphibian class, and their heart has three chambers. The scientific name of the common Indian frog is Rana tigrina.

Hence, the correct answer is Kerala.

Question: Match the following correctly—

List	Mineral
a. Kudremukh	i. Mica
b. Balaghat	ii. Iron
c. Nellore	iii. Copper
d. Zawar	iv. Zinc

Codes:
(a) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(b) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(d) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Answer: a

Solution:
This question requires the correct matching of major mineral regions of India.

Place	Correct Mineral
Kudremukh	Iron
Balaghat	Copper
Nellore	Mica
Zawar	Zinc

Kudremukh (Karnataka) is famous for iron ore, especially high-grade magnetite.
Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh) is known for copper production.
Nellore (Andhra Pradesh) is famous for mica.
Zawar (Rajasthan) is known for zinc mines.

Thus, the correct code is a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv.

Question: Which substance has indefinite shape but definite volume?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Kerosene
(c) CO₂
(d) Gold

Answer: b

Solution:
A substance that has indefinite shape but definite volume is a liquid. Among the given options, kerosene is a liquid.

A liquid takes the shape of the container in which it is kept, so its shape is not fixed. However, the particles in a liquid remain within a fixed boundary and stay close to each other, so its volume remains definite. This is the main property of the liquid state.

Aluminium and gold are solids, so both their shape and volume are fixed.
CO₂ is a gas, and gases have neither definite shape nor definite volume because they spread throughout the container.

Other properties of liquids include:

Fluidity
Surface tension
Viscosity
Ability to form droplets

Kerosene shows all these properties, so it is the correct answer.

Question: Consider the following statements and identify the false statement—
(i) A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal.
(ii) Carbon does not form a bond with oxygen compared to oxygen.
(iii) Carbon mainly forms carbides with highly reactive metals like sodium, potassium, and calcium.
(iv) Sodium, magnesium, and calcium are obtained as metals by electrolysis of their molten chlorides.

Na⁺ + e⁻ → Na
2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻

(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Only (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: c

Solution:
In this question, we need to identify the false statement.

Statement (i) is correct because in a displacement reaction, a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound. For example, zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

Statement (ii) is false because carbon easily combines with oxygen to form carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement (iii) is correct because carbon combines with highly reactive metals to form carbides, such as calcium carbide (CaC₂).

Statement (iv) is also correct because highly reactive metals like sodium, magnesium, and calcium cannot be extracted by ordinary chemical reduction. Therefore, they are obtained by electrolysis of their molten chlorides. The given reactions Na⁺ + e⁻ → Na and 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻ represent the electrode reactions in this process.

Hence, only statement (ii) is false.

Question: Akshay borrowed ₹8000 for 2 years at the rate of 15% per annum. Find the amount if the interest is—
(i) compounded annually
(ii) compounded half-yearly

(a) (i) ₹10550, (ii) ₹11883.25
(b) (i) ₹10090, (ii) ₹12432.75
(c) (i) ₹10580, (ii) ₹10680.25
(d) (i) ₹10580, (ii) ₹10683.75

Answer: d

Solution:
Given:
Principal = ₹8000
Rate = 15% per year
Time = 2 years

For annual compounding:
Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T
= 8000(1 + 15/100)^2
= 8000(1.15)^2
= 8000 × 1.3225
= ₹10580

For half-yearly compounding:
Here the rate becomes 15/2 = 7.5% per half-year, and the total number of half-years = 2 × 2 = 4.

Amount = 8000(1 + 7.5/100)^4
= 8000(1.075)^4
= 8000 × 1.33547
≈ ₹10683.75

Final Answer:
(i) ₹10580
(ii) ₹10683.75

Question: A sphere of radius 7 cm, a cylinder of radius 7 cm and height 7 cm, and a cone of radius 7 cm and height 7 cm are given. Which of the following statements is true?
(i) Surface area of sphere = 616 cm²
(ii) Volume of cone = 308 cm³
(iii) Volume of sphere = 1437.33 cm³
(iv) Surface area of sphere = 359.33 cm²

(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All are correct

Answer: c

Solution:
Given:
For sphere, cylinder, and cone
Radius (r) = 7 cm
Height (h) = 7 cm

For statement (i), surface area of sphere:
Formula = 4πr²
= 4 × (22/7) × 7 × 7
= 4 × 22 × 7
= 616 cm²

So, statement (i) is correct.

For statement (ii), volume of cone:
Formula = (1/3)πr²h
= (1/3) × (22/7) × 7 × 7 × 7
= (1/3) × 22 × 49
= 359.33 cm³

Given value is 308 cm³, so statement (ii) is incorrect.

For statement (iii), volume of sphere:
Formula = (4/3)πr³
= (4/3) × (22/7) × 7 × 7 × 7
= (4/3) × 22 × 49
= 1437.33 cm³

So, statement (iii) is correct.

For statement (iv), surface area of sphere is 359.33 cm².
But from statement (i), we found it to be 616 cm².

So, statement (iv) is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (iii).

Question: The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 8% per annum is ₹4160. What will be the simple interest?
(a) ₹4000
(b) ₹3500
(c) ₹3800
(d) ₹4100

Answer: a

Solution:
Given:
CI = ₹4160
Rate = 8%
Time = 2 years

For 2 years, compound interest percentage =
8 + 8 + (8×8)/100
= 16 + 0.64
= 16.64%

Now,
4160 = 16.64% of Principal

Principal = (4160 × 100) / 16.64
= 25000

Now, simple interest:
SI = (P × R × T) / 100
= (25000 × 8 × 2) / 100
= 4000

Therefore, the simple interest = ₹4000.

Question: Consider the following numbers:
(i) 263
(ii) 221
(iii) 483

Which of the above are prime and composite?
(a) (i), (ii) composite; (iii) prime
(b) (i) prime; (ii), (iii) composite
(c) All composite
(d) All prime

Answer: b

Solution:

263: It is not divisible by any number up to √263 ≈ 16. Hence, it is a prime number.
221:
221 = 13 × 17
So, it is a composite number.
483:
Sum of digits = 4 + 8 + 3 = 15, which is divisible by 3.
So, 483 is divisible by 3.

483 = 3 × 161
= 3 × 7 × 23

Hence, it is also a composite number.

Therefore:

(i) Prime
(ii) Composite
(iii) Composite

Question: If the production of TVs in the 3rd year is 600 and in the 7th year is 700, then—
(i) Production in the 5th year = 500
(ii) Production in the 9th year = 750
(iii) Production in the first 6 years = 3675

(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) Only statement (ii) is true
(d) All statements are true

Answer: b

Solution:
Given:
a₃ = 600
a₇ = 700

Since this is an arithmetic progression (AP):
a₇ − a₃ = 4d
700 − 600 = 4d
100 = 4d
d = 25

Now,
a₃ = a + 2d
600 = a + 50
a = 550

Now check each statement:

(i) 5th year production:
a₅ = a + 4d
= 550 + 100
= 650

Given 500, so this is false ✘

(ii) 9th year production:
a₉ = a + 8d
= 550 + 200
= 750

So this is true ✔

(iii) Sum of first 6 years:
S₆ = n/2 [2a + (n−1)d]
= 6/2 [2×550 + 5×25]
= 3 [1100 + 125]
= 3 × 1225
= 3675

So this is true ✔

Therefore, statements (ii) and (iii) are true.

Question: Using the empirical relation between mean, median, and mode, find the value of mode if median = 30 and mean = 25.
(a) 60
(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) 40

Answer: d

Solution:
Empirical relation:
Mode = 3 Median − 2 Mean

Substituting the values:
Mode = 3 × 30 − 2 × 25
= 90 − 50
= 40

Therefore, the mode = 40.

Question: If cos B = 5/13 and sin A = 4/5, which of the following is true?
(i) cos A = 5/3, tan A = 3/5
(ii) sin A = 12/5, cos A = 3/4
(iii) tan B = 12/5, cos A = 3/5
(iv) tan A = 12/13, sin B = 4/5

(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (iv) and (iii)

Answer: c

Solution:
Given:
sin A = 4/5

Using the identity sin²A + cos²A = 1,
cos A = √(1 − sin²A)
= √(1 − 16/25)
= √(9/25)
= 3/5

Now,
tan A = sin A / cos A
= (4/5) / (3/5)
= 4/3

Now for angle B:
cos B = 5/13

sin B = √(1 − cos²B)
= √(1 − 25/169)
= √(144/169)
= 12/13

tan B = sin B / cos B
= (12/13) / (5/13)
= 12/5

Now checking the options:

(i) cos A = 5/3 ✘, tan A = 3/5 ✘
(ii) sin A = 12/5 ✘, cos A = 3/4 ✘
(iii) tan B = 12/5 ✔, cos A = 3/5 ✔
(iv) tan A = 12/13 ✘, sin B = 4/5 ✘

Therefore, only statement (iii) is correct.

Question: The height of a cone is 40 cm. It is cut by a plane parallel to its base, and the volume of the smaller cone is 1/64 of the original cone. Find the height from the base at which the cone is cut.

(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 10

Answer: c

Solution:
Given, the height of the original cone = 40 cm.

The ratio of the volume of the smaller cone to the original cone = 1 : 64.

For similar solids, the ratio of heights is equal to the cube root of the volume ratio.

So, height ratio = ∛(1:64)
= 1:4

Therefore, the height of the smaller cone = 40/4
= 10 cm

Now, height from the base where the cone is cut =
40 − 10
= 30 cm

Hence, the correct answer is 30 cm.

Question: A milkman sells 1 litre milk at ₹80, but instead of a 1 litre vessel, he uses a 950 mL vessel. Which of the following is correct?
(i) Selling at ₹80 per litre gives 5% profit.
(ii) Selling at ₹84 per litre gives 10% profit.

(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) None of these

Answer: d

Solution:
1 litre = 1000 mL
But he actually gives only 950 mL.

So, shortage =
1000 − 950 = 50 mL

Now actual gain percentage due to short measure:

Profit % = (Shortage / Actual given) × 100
= (50 / 950) × 100
= 5.26%

So statement (i) is false, because profit is not exactly 5%.

Now check statement (ii):
If price is ₹84 for “1 litre”, actual milk given = 950 mL

Cost of 950 mL at ₹80 per litre =
80 × 950 / 1000
= ₹76

Profit = 84 − 76 = ₹8

Profit % = (8 / 76) × 100
= 10.52%

So statement (ii) is also false, because profit is not exactly 10%.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.
Hence the correct answer is (d) None of these.

Question: A sum gets simple interest for 3 years at a fixed rate. If the rate of interest is increased by 4%, then ₹840 more is obtained. Find the principal.

(a) 7200
(b) 6800
(c) 7100
(d) 7000

Answer: d

Solution:
Given:
Extra rate = 4%
Time = 3 years
Extra interest = ₹840

Using simple interest formula for extra interest:

Extra SI = (P × R × T) / 100

So,
840 = (P × 4 × 3) / 100

840 = 12P / 100
840 = 3P / 25

P = (840 × 25) / 3
P = 7000

Therefore, the required principal = ₹7000.

Question: ‘कुछ लोग इंग्लिश बोलते हैं’ का अंग्रेजी अनुवाद क्या होगा?

(a) A few people speak English
(b) Any people speak English
(c) All people speak English
(d) No one people speak English

Answer: a

Solution:

“कुछ लोग” का अर्थ होता है A few people / Some people।
यहाँ वाक्य सामान्य सत्य (habitual fact) को दर्शाता है, इसलिए Simple Present Tense का प्रयोग होगा।

Structure:
Subject + V₁ + Object

⇒ A few people + speak + English

Option (b) में “Any people” गलत प्रयोग है क्योंकि “any” सामान्यतः नकारात्मक/प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों में आता है।
Option (c) “All people” का अर्थ “सभी लोग” होता है, जो गलत है।
Option (d) में “No one people” व्याकरण की दृष्टि से गलत संरचना है।

Question: ‘वह कल विदेश से लौटेगा।’ का अंग्रेजी अनुवाद क्या होगा?

(a) He shall come from abroad yesterday
(b) He will come from abroad yesterday
(c) He will come from abroad tomorrow
(d) He was come from abroad yesterday

Answer: c

Solution:

वाक्य में “लौटेगा” भविष्यकाल (Future Tense) को दर्शाता है।
“कल” यहाँ संदर्भ के अनुसार tomorrow (आने वाला कल) है।

Structure (Future Indefinite):
Subject + will + V₁ + Object

⇒ He will come from abroad tomorrow

Option (a) और (b) में “yesterday” (बीता हुआ कल) है, जो Future tense से मेल नहीं खाता।
Option (d) में “was come” गलत संरचना है (correct: came)।

Question: Acquittal का हिन्दी रूपांतरण क्या है?

(a) दोषमुक्त
(b) दोषयुक्त
(c) दोषारोपण
(d) अभियुक्त

Answer: a

Solution:

“Acquittal” का अर्थ होता है किसी अभियुक्त को दोषमुक्त घोषित करना (court द्वारा)।

Acquittal → दोषमुक्त ✔
दोषयुक्त → Flawed
दोषारोपण → Accusation
अभियुक्त → Accused

यह शब्द मुख्यतः न्यायिक (Judicial) संदर्भ में प्रयुक्त होता है।

Question: Provident Fund का हिन्दी रूपांतरण क्या है?

(a) भविष्य निधि
(b) आरक्षित निधि
(c) दूरदर्शी निधि
(d) पारदर्शी निधि

Answer: a

Solution:

“Provident Fund (PF)” का अर्थ है कर्मचारी के वेतन से कटकर भविष्य के लिए जमा की गई राशि।

Provident → भविष्य के लिए व्यवस्था
Fund → निधि

⇒ Provident Fund = भविष्य निधि ✔

यह एक सामाजिक सुरक्षा योजना है, जिसमें कर्मचारी और नियोक्ता दोनों योगदान करते हैं।

Question: Defalcation का हिन्दी रूपांतरण क्या है?

(a) गबन
(b) हवन
(c) आरोपण
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: a

Solution:

“Defalcation” का अर्थ होता है धन का गबन या दुरुपयोग (misappropriation of funds)।

Defalcation → गबन ✔
हवन → धार्मिक क्रिया
आरोपण → Accusation

यह शब्द प्रायः वित्तीय अनियमितताओं (financial fraud) के संदर्भ में प्रयुक्त होता है।

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