Bihar SI Mains 27 May 2026 Question and Answer Key Pdf Download in Hindi and English

Answer: D

Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was one of the most important personalities in the making of the Indian Constitution. He was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly on 29 August 1947. Due to his extraordinary contribution, he is known as the “Architect of the Indian Constitution.”

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first Education Minister of independent India. He played a major role in the development of modern education, scientific thinking, and higher educational institutions in India. During his tenure, institutions such as UGC, IITs, Sahitya Akademi, and Sangeet Natak Akademi were established. National Education Day is celebrated every year on 11 November on his birth anniversary.

Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the first Health Minister of independent India. She contributed significantly to public health, women’s welfare, maternal and child care, and medical education. Due to her efforts, AIIMS, New Delhi was established.

Acharya Narendra Dev was a prominent socialist thinker, educationist, and freedom fighter. He was associated with the Congress Socialist Party, not with the Communist Party of India (CPI). The CPI was founded in 1925, and leaders such as M.N. Roy, S.A. Dange, and Muzaffar Ahmad were associated with its foundation. Therefore, option D is the incorrect pair.

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Answer: A

Provisions related to Money Bills are mentioned under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. A Money Bill deals with matters such as taxation, government expenditure, Consolidated Fund of India, borrowing of money, and financial matters.

Statement (a) is incorrect because a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha.

Statement (b) is correct because the prior recommendation of the President is necessary before introducing a Money Bill. Also, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill, and the Speaker’s decision is final.

Statement (c) is correct because the Rajya Sabha can detain a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days. It can only make recommendations, which may or may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Statement (d) is incorrect because there is no provision for a Joint Sitting in the case of a Money Bill. Joint Sitting is provided under Article 108 only for ordinary bills.

Statement (e) is correct because rejection of a Money Bill in the Lok Sabha is considered a loss of confidence in the government, and the government may have to resign.

Therefore, the correct answer is A (b, c and e).

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Answer: B

The Indian Constitution is described as a “federal system with unitary bias.” It contains both federal and unitary features.

The major federal features are—

• Dual Government — There are two levels of government: Central Government and State Governments.

• Supremacy of the Constitution — The Constitution is the supreme law of the land, and both Centre and States work under it.

• Division of Powers — Powers are divided into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List under the Seventh Schedule.

• Bicameral Legislature — The Parliament has two Houses: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha represents the States.

On the other hand—

• Single Constitution and

• Integrated Judiciary

are considered unitary features of the Indian Constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is B (a, c, d and f).

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Answer: A

Under the Indian Constitution, the Governor normally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, but in certain situations the Governor enjoys discretionary powers under Article 163.

(a) Reserving a bill for the President is a discretionary power. If a bill appears unconstitutional or affects national interest, the Governor may reserve it for the President’s consideration.

(b) Acting as the administrator of a Union Territory is also possible in some cases. For example, the Governor of Punjab has also acted as the Administrator of Chandigarh.

(d) Appointment of the Chief Minister becomes discretionary when no party gets a clear majority in the Assembly. The Governor decides who is most likely to prove majority support.

(e) Reporting failure of constitutional machinery in the state under Article 356 is another important discretionary power.

Statement (c) is incorrect because the Fourth Schedule relates to allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha and has no relation with discretionary powers of the Governor.

Therefore, the correct answer is A (a, b, d and e).

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Answer: C

Article 78 of the Indian Constitution deals with the duties of the Prime Minister. According to this Article, the Prime Minister must communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to administration and legislation.

India follows a parliamentary system of government, where the President is the constitutional head, while the real executive powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

The important duties of the Prime Minister under Article 78 are—

• To communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President

• To furnish information sought by the President

• To place before the Council of Ministers matters decided by an individual minister if the President requires it

Other Articles—

• Article 74 → Deals with the advice of the Council of Ministers to the President

• Article 75 → Deals with appointment and responsibility of ministers

• Article 81 → Deals with composition of the Lok Sabha

Therefore, the correct answer is C (Article 78).

Answer: A

India is rich in natural resources and has vast reserves of iron ore, which is the basic raw material for the steel industry. Iron ore is mainly found in the form of hematite and magnetite, with hematite being more important in India.

The major iron ore producing regions are located in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa.

Iron Ore Region State Important Feature

Gua and Noamundi Jharkhand High-quality hematite ore

Bailadila Chhattisgarh Major export-quality iron ore region

Bellary-Chitradurga Karnataka Important iron ore belt of South India

Ratnagiri Maharashtra Mineral-rich Konkan region

Gua and Noamundi are located in West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand and are known for high-grade hematite iron ore.

Bailadila is located in Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh. It is famous for high-quality export-grade iron ore and is developed mainly by NMDC (National Mineral Development Corporation).

Bellary-Chitradurga region is situated in Karnataka and is one of the major iron ore producing belts of South India.

Ratnagiri is located in Maharashtra in the Konkan region and is known for mineral resources including iron ore.

Therefore, the correct matching is:

• 1 → ii

• 2 → i

• 3 → iv

• 4 → iii

Hence, the correct answer is A.

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Answer: C

Wheat is one of the most important Rabi crops of India and the second major food crop after rice. India is among the world’s largest wheat producers.

Major wheat-producing states include:

• Uttar Pradesh

• Punjab

• Haryana

• Madhya Pradesh

• Rajasthan

• Bihar

Statement Status Explanation

I Incorrect Rice is the main food crop of eastern India

II Incorrect Wheat needs cool weather during growth and warm dry weather during ripening

III Correct 50–75 cm rainfall is suitable for wheat cultivation

Statement I is incorrect because eastern India receives heavy rainfall and is mainly suitable for rice cultivation, not wheat.

Statement II is incorrect because wheat requires cool and moist weather during sowing and growth, while bright sunshine and dry weather are needed during ripening.

Statement III is correct because wheat grows well in regions receiving about 50–75 cm annual rainfall. In areas with lower rainfall, irrigation is necessary.

The Green Revolution in India greatly increased wheat production through the use of:

• HYV seeds

• Irrigation facilities

• Chemical fertilizers

• Modern agricultural techniques

Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is known as the Father of Green Revolution in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is C (Only III).

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Answer: A

The Brahmaputra River is one of the major Himalayan rivers of India. It does not originate in Arunachal Pradesh. Its origin is near the Angsi Glacier in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo. Therefore, statement A is incorrect.

Near Namcha Barwa peak, the river takes a famous U-shaped bend (hairpin bend) and turns southward. This statement is correct.

After entering India through Arunachal Pradesh, the river is called Siang or Dihang. Later, the Dibang and Lohit rivers join it, after which it is known as the Brahmaputra.

The Brahmaputra River is approximately 2900 km long, which is slightly longer than the Indus River (about 2880 km).

Important facts about Brahmaputra River:

• Forms fertile alluvial plains in Assam

• Creates the world’s largest river island — Majuli

• Enters Bangladesh as the Jamuna River

• Finally joins the Ganga and Meghna before flowing into the Bay of Bengal

The river is important for:

• Irrigation

• Hydroelectric power

• Agriculture

• Water transport

Hence, the correct answer is A.

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Answer: D

India experiences uneven distribution of rainfall because of its monsoon climate. Some regions receive heavy rainfall, while others face recurring drought conditions.

Drought Category Region Main Feature

Extremely drought affected Western region of Aravalli Hills Desert climate and low rainfall

Severe drought affected Eastern Maharashtra Irregular monsoon and water scarcity

Moderate drought affected Coimbatore Plateau Rain-shadow region

Drought free Western coastal region Heavy monsoon rainfall

The western side of the Aravalli Hills, especially the Thar Desert region, receives very little rainfall and faces frequent droughts.

The eastern part of Maharashtra, particularly Vidarbha and Marathwada, is severely drought-prone due to irregular monsoon and groundwater depletion.

The Coimbatore Plateau lies in the rain-shadow region of Tamil Nadu and receives comparatively less rainfall.

The western coastal region receives heavy rainfall from the South-West Monsoon and is generally drought free.

Therefore, the correct matching is:

• 1 → c

• 2 → d

• 3 → b

• 4 → a

Hence, the correct answer is D.

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Answer: A

The Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC) is the main agency responsible for monitoring and controlling pollution in the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It works on issues related to:

• Water pollution

• Air pollution

• Industrial pollution

• Waste management

Therefore, students researching water quality in Delhi should visit the DPCC.

Major functions of DPCC include:

• Monitoring water and air quality

• Identifying pollution sources

• Enforcing environmental standards

• Monitoring sewage and industrial waste treatment

• Conducting environmental awareness programs

About other options:

• ICER is not a major statutory pollution control body.

• NWDA deals mainly with water resource development and river-linking projects, not pollution control.

• CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) is the national-level body established under the Water Act, 1974, but local implementation in Delhi is mainly handled by DPCC.

Thus, the correct answer is A (DPCC).

Answer: D

The concept of Judicial Activism in India developed especially during the 1970s and 1980s. Judicial activism means that the judiciary does not remain limited only to the narrow interpretation of laws, but plays an active role in protecting the spirit of the Constitution, citizens’ rights and social justice.

The credit for establishing and promoting this ideology in the Indian judiciary is mainly given to Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P. N. Bhagwati. Both these judges made the Indian judiciary more sensitive towards the rights of the poor, labourers, prisoners, women and weaker sections of society.

Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer emphasized developing justice as an instrument of social justice rather than limiting it to technical procedures. He delivered historic judgments related to human rights, prisoners’ rights and labour rights.

Justice P. N. Bhagwati played a significant role in popularizing Public Interest Litigation (PIL). Due to his efforts, a system developed in which any individual or organization could file a petition in court in the interest of weaker sections of society. This made the judiciary more accessible to common citizens.

Important cases related to judicial activism in India include—

• Maneka Gandhi Case (1978)

• Hussainara Khatoon Case

• Vishakha Case (1997)

• Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)

In these cases, the Supreme Court gave a broad interpretation to Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution and strengthened civil liberties.

Justice Hidayatullah was a distinguished Chief Justice of India, but he is not considered among the principal pioneers of judicial activism.

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Answer: B

India is one of the most biodiversity-rich countries in the world. It possesses diverse ecosystems such as the Himalayan region, Western Ghats, deserts, mangrove forests, tropical rainforests and marine ecosystems. Biodiversity includes plants, animals, microorganisms and their genetic resources.

For the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of biological resources and equitable sharing of benefits arising from them, the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted in India. This Act was framed to implement the objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992.

Under this Act, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established, whose headquarters is located in Chennai. In addition, State Biodiversity Boards and Biodiversity Management Committees at the local level were also constituted.

The objective of this law is not only to protect biological resources but also to safeguard the traditional knowledge of local communities and tribal groups. The Act also regulates the uncontrolled use of Indian biological resources by foreign companies.

Forest Conservation Act, 1980 mainly relates to the conservation of forests.

Environment Protection Act, 1986 was enacted for broader environmental protection.

Wild Birds and Animals Protection Act, 1912 was an old law of the British period, later replaced by modern laws.

For biodiversity conservation in India, programmes such as—

• National Parks

• Wildlife Sanctuaries

• Biosphere Reserves

• Project Tiger

• Project Elephant

• Ramsar Wetland Conservation Programme

are also being implemented.

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Answer: D

Presentation programs are software applications used to create slide-based presentations. They are widely used in education, business, training, government presentations and online meetings.

Microsoft PowerPoint is the world’s most popular presentation software. It is part of the Microsoft Office Suite and is used to create attractive presentations using text, images, audio, video, graphs and animations.

Impress is an open-source presentation software that is part of LibreOffice. Like PowerPoint, it provides facilities for slide creation, animation and multimedia presentations.

Keynote is a presentation software developed by Apple Inc. It is mainly used on macOS and iOS devices and is known for its attractive designs and graphical presentation features.

On the other hand, KSpread is not a presentation software. It was a spreadsheet program that was part of the KOffice Suite. It was used for data analysis, table creation, calculations and statistical work. Later, it was developed into Calligra Sheets.

Computer applications are generally divided into different categories—

• Word Processing Software – MS Word

• Spreadsheet Software – MS Excel, KSpread

• Presentation Software – PowerPoint, Impress, Keynote

• Database Software – MS Access

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Answer: A

Every year, 23 August is celebrated in India as National Space Day. This day is observed in memory of a historic achievement in India’s space history.

On 23 August 2023, India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission successfully landed near the south pole of the Moon. With this achievement, India became the first country in the world to successfully soft-land near the lunar south polar region. India also became the fourth country after the USA, Russia and China to achieve a successful soft landing on the Moon.

The Chandrayaan-3 mission was conducted by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The mission mainly included three components—

• Propulsion Module

• Vikram Lander

• Pragyan Rover

The Vikram Lander was named in honour of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, who is regarded as the Father of the Indian Space Programme. The Pragyan Rover carried out chemical and mineralogical studies on the lunar surface.

The Government of India declared 23 August as National Space Day to encourage interest in science, technology and space research among the youth.

Major space missions of India include—

• Aryabhata (1975) – India’s first satellite

• Chandrayaan-1 (2008) – Discovery of water molecules on the Moon

• Mangalyaan (2013) – First country to reach Mars in its maiden attempt

• Chandrayaan-3 (2023) – Successful landing on the lunar south pole

India’s space programme plays a vital role in communication, weather forecasting, disaster management, defence, agriculture and education.

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Answer: C

Prof. C. Ananthanarayanan Krishnan was honoured with the 2024 Tata Transformation Prize/Fellowship. He received this recognition for his innovations and research related to health, nutrition, sustainable energy and low-cost RSV Vaccine (Respiratory Syncytial Virus Vaccine).

This award is given to promote scientific research and socially impactful innovations. The work of Prof. Ananthanarayanan Krishnan has mainly focused on technologies that help provide healthcare services to a larger population at low cost.

RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus) is a virus that mainly causes respiratory infections in children and elderly people. The development of low-cost vaccines is considered extremely important for public health in developing countries.

In recent years, India has emerged rapidly in the fields of biotechnology, vaccine research and health innovation. During the COVID-19 pandemic, India played a major role in vaccine production and global health cooperation.

Various institutions have contributed significantly to promoting India’s achievements in science and technology, such as—

• Department of Science and Technology (DST)

• Department of Biotechnology (DBT)

• CSIR

• ICMR

To encourage scientific research in India, various national and international awards are given from time to time with the objective of promoting innovation-driven development and sustainable technology.

Answer: B

The famous Hindi novel “Maila Aanchal” was written by Phanishwar Nath ‘Renu’. This novel is considered one of the most important and representative works of the regional (Aanchalik) stream of Hindi literature. It was published in 1954.

Phanishwar Nath Renu was born in the village Aurahi Hingna in Purnia district (present-day Araria), Bihar. In his literary works, he vividly portrayed rural life, folk culture, social inequality, political changes and the struggles of common people.

“Maila Aanchal” is regarded as the first major regional novel in Hindi literature. The novel realistically depicts the rural society of Bihar, post-independence social conditions, poverty, illiteracy, caste problems and rural politics. The main setting of the novel is connected with the Mithila and Purnia regions of Bihar.

Phanishwar Nath Renu was also associated with the Indian freedom movement and the democratic movement of Nepal. His language style clearly reflects the influence of local dialects, folk songs and rural culture.

Other major works of Renu include—

• Parti Parikatha

• Dirghatapa

• Julus

• Thumri

The other writers mentioned in the options are also important figures in Hindi literature—

• Ramdhari Singh Dinkar was famous as the National Poet (Rashtrakavi) and his major works include Rashmirathi and Urvashi.

• Shivpujan Sahay was a renowned writer of Hindi prose literature.

• Devki Nandan Khatri is famous for the fantasy novel Chandrakanta.

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Answer: B

A Firewall is an important tool of computer network security. It is a hardware or software-based security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic. Its main function is to prevent unauthorized access and provide a security shield between secure and insecure networks.

The statement says that a firewall acts as a network filter. This means that it examines data packets and decides which traffic will be allowed and which will be blocked.

Conclusion I is not correct because a firewall is not installed only on a single computer. It can also be installed on personal computers, servers, network devices or at the entire organizational network level. Therefore, it cannot be concluded with certainty that a firewall is “placed on a computer.”

Conclusion II is correct. A firewall plays an important role in protecting against harmful programs, viruses, malware and especially worms that spread through networks. By blocking suspicious traffic, it helps in securing the network.

Apart from firewalls, other important measures in computer security include—

• Antivirus Software

• Encryption

• Authentication System

• Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Today, firewalls are widely used in the fields of banking, e-governance, e-commerce, defence and cloud computing.

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Answer: D

Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in the state of Jharkhand, India. It is the only bird sanctuary of the state and has recently been granted the status of a Ramsar Site.

Udhwa Lake is situated in Sahibganj district and mainly consists of two lakes—

• Pataura Lake

• Brahm Jamalpur Lake

This area is an important habitat for migratory birds. During winter, a large number of migratory birds arrive here from Siberia, Central Asia and other regions.

A Ramsar Site refers to wetlands recognized as wetlands of international importance. This recognition is given under the Ramsar Convention, 1971, which was held in the city of Ramsar in Iran. India is a member country of this convention.

Wetlands in India are extremely important for—

• Biodiversity conservation

• Groundwater recharge

• Flood control

• Ecological balance

Other important geographical and environmental features of Jharkhand include—

• Betla National Park

• Palamau Tiger Reserve

• Chotanagpur Plateau

• Major mineral resources — coal, iron ore and mica

In recent years, many new Ramsar Sites have been recognized in India, promoting wetland conservation.

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Answer: D

Mount Kinabalu is one of the famous mountain peaks of Southeast Asia and is the highest mountain peak of Malaysia. Its height is approximately 4095 metres. It is located in the Sabah state on the island of Borneo.

The achievement of young Indian mountaineer Nitish Singh in hoisting the Indian tricolour on this peak is considered a matter of pride for India. Such achievements play an important role in encouraging youth towards adventure sports and mountaineering.

Mount Kinabalu lies within the Kinabalu National Park, which has been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The region is famous for its rich biodiversity, rare flora and natural beauty.

Malaysia is an important country of Southeast Asia. Its capital is Kuala Lumpur, while its administrative capital is Putrajaya. Malaysia is divided into two main regions—

• Peninsular Malaysia

• East Malaysia (Borneo region)

Some major mountain peaks of the world are—

• Mount Everest — Nepal

• K2 (Godwin Austen) — Pakistan-occupied Kashmir region

• Kanchenjunga — India-Nepal border

• Mount Kinabalu — Malaysia

Institutions such as the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute (Darjeeling) and the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (Uttarkashi) play an important role in promoting mountaineering in India.

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Answer: B

In the year 2024, the Ministry of Culture and the India Post released a special Commemorative Postage Stamp and a Miniature Sheet on the occasion of the 100th birth anniversary of legendary playback singer Mukesh Chand Mathur (Mukesh).

The programme was organized on 24 July 2024 at Rang Bhavan of Akashvani, New Delhi. Union Minister for Culture and Tourism Gajendra Singh Shekhawat attended the event as the chief guest. On this occasion, Mukesh’s son and renowned singer Nitin Mukesh also paid a musical tribute while recalling his father’s musical journey.

Mukesh was one of the most popular playback singers of Hindi cinema. He was especially recognized as the voice of actor Raj Kapoor. His singing style reflected a unique blend of pain, emotional depth and sweetness. During his musical career, he sang more than 1300 songs.

Some of his famous songs include—

• “Kahin Door Jab Din Dhal Jaye”

• “Dost Dost Na Raha”

• “Jeena Yahan Marna Yahan”

• “Sawan Ka Mahina”

About the other options—

• A commemorative coin was announced in 2024 on the occasion of the 100th birth anniversary of Mohammed Rafi.

• Kishore Kumar was born in 1929, therefore 2024 marked his 95th birth anniversary.

• Mahendra Kapoor was a famous playback singer, but no such commemorative stamp was issued in his honour in 2024.

Answer: B

Activated Charcoal is a special form of carbon mainly used in the treatment of poisoning and drug overdose. Its surface is highly porous, which enables it to adsorb toxic substances and prevent them from spreading inside the body.

In clinical settings, the most common method of administering activated charcoal is in the form of an Oral Suspension. It is mixed with water or another liquid and given to the patient orally. It binds toxic substances present in the stomach and intestines, thereby reducing their absorption into the body.

Activated Charcoal is especially useful in cases of—

• Drug overdose

• Consumption of toxic chemicals

• Certain cases of food poisoning

• Emergency poison treatment

This treatment is considered most effective when administered within one hour of consuming the toxic substance.

Activated Charcoal is not administered through Intravenous (IV) or Subcutaneous Injection because its function is to absorb toxic substances inside the digestive tract. Similarly, it is generally not used as a Topical Application.

In medical science, other important poison control methods include—

• Gastric Lavage

• Antidote Therapy

• Hemodialysis

• Supportive Care

Activated Charcoal should only be used under medical supervision and controlled conditions, as it is not effective against certain chemicals and acidic substances.

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Answer: C

This question is based on the properties of elements in the Periodic Table. It involves concepts related to electronegativity, atomic radius, semiconducting nature, and chemical bonding.

P. Most electronegative element — Fluorine (IV)

In the periodic table, Fluorine is the most electronegative element. Electronegativity refers to the ability of an atom to attract electrons toward itself in a chemical bond. Fluorine has an electronegativity of about 4.0 on the Pauling scale, which is the highest among all elements. Therefore, fluorine is considered a highly reactive non-metal.

Q. Group-14 element having minimum atomic radius — Carbon (III)

The major elements of Group-14 are—

• Carbon (C)

• Silicon (Si)

• Germanium (Ge)

• Tin (Sn)

• Lead (Pb)

As we move down a group, the atomic radius increases due to the increase in electron shells. Since Carbon is the topmost element of this group, it has the smallest atomic radius.

R. Group-13 element which is a semiconductor — Boron (II)

Group-13 elements include Boron, Aluminium, Gallium etc. Among them, Boron is a metalloid and exhibits semiconducting properties. Semiconductors are widely used in electronic devices, transistors, diodes and computer chips.

S. Group-15 element forming a triple bond — Nitrogen (I)

Two atoms of nitrogen in N₂ are connected through a strong triple bond, represented as N≡N. This bond is extremely strong, making atmospheric nitrogen relatively less reactive under normal conditions.

Thus, the correct matching is—

• P → IV (Fluorine)

• Q → III (Carbon)

• R → II (Boron)

• S → I (Nitrogen)

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Answer: A

Chemical reactions are processes in which reactants undergo chemical changes to form new substances. Reactions are classified into different types based on their nature and products formed.

a. C(s) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

In this reaction, carbon and oxygen combine to form a single product, carbon dioxide. When two or more substances combine to form a new substance, it is called a Combination Reaction.

Therefore—

a → 4 (Combination Reaction)

b. CaCO₃(s) ⟶(heat) CaO(s) + CO₂(g)

In this reaction, calcium carbonate breaks down into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide upon heating. When a single compound breaks into two or more simpler substances, it is called a Decomposition Reaction.

This is an example of Thermal Decomposition because heat is used in the process.

Therefore—

b → 3 (Decomposition Reaction)

c. Pb(s) + CuCl₂(aq) → PbCl₂(aq) + Cu(s)

In this reaction, the more reactive metal Lead (Pb) displaces the less reactive metal Copper (Cu) from its compound. Such reactions are called Displacement Reactions.

According to the Reactivity Series, a more reactive metal can displace a less reactive metal from its compound.

Therefore—

c → 1 (Displacement Reaction)

d. Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

In this reaction, ions of two compounds exchange places and form a white precipitate of Barium Sulphate (BaSO₄). Such reactions are known as Double Displacement Reactions.

This is also a Precipitation Reaction because an insoluble solid is formed.

Therefore—

d → 2 (Double Displacement Reaction)

Answer: A

Electrolytic Refining is an important electrochemical process used for the purification of metals. This method is mainly used for refining metals such as copper, silver, gold, and zinc.

In the electrolytic refining of copper—

• Impure copper is used as the anode.

• A thin sheet of pure copper is used as the cathode.

• Acidified copper sulphate solution is used as the electrolyte.

When electric current is passed through the solution, the impure copper present at the anode gets oxidized and dissolves into the solution in the form of Cu²⁺ ions—

Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻

These ions then move toward the cathode, gain electrons, and get deposited as pure copper—

Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu

In this process, impurities are removed in two ways—

• Insoluble impurities settle down at the bottom and are called Anode Mud.

• Soluble impurities remain dissolved in the electrolyte solution.

Several precious metals such as—

• Gold

• Silver

• Platinum

are obtained from the anode mud.

Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity, therefore it is widely used in—

• Electric wires

• Motors

• Generators

• Electronic devices

Since highly pure copper is required in the electrical industry, electrolytic refining has great industrial importance.

Answer: C

The electronic configuration of an element represents the distribution of electrons in different energy levels or shells of an atom. The distribution of electrons is mainly based on Bohr’s Atomic Model.

Oxygen has atomic number 8, therefore it contains 8 electrons. The first shell (K-shell) can hold a maximum of 2 electrons, while the remaining 6 electrons are arranged in the second shell (L-shell).

Its configuration is — 2,6

Therefore —

1 → b

Neon has atomic number 10. It is a Noble Gas and its outermost shell is completely filled. Its electronic configuration is — 2,8

Therefore —

2 → c

Aluminium has atomic number 13. Its electronic distribution is — 2,8,3. Aluminium is a light metal and is widely used in aircraft manufacturing, electrical wires, and household appliances.

Therefore —

3 → d

Phosphorus has atomic number 15. Its electronic configuration is — 2,8,5. Phosphorus plays an important role in living cells, DNA, and fertilizers.

Therefore —

4 → a

Thus, the correct matching is—

• 1 → b

• 2 → c

• 3 → d

• 4 → a

On the basis of electronic configuration, the following properties of an element are determined—

• Chemical properties

• Valency

• Reactivity

• Position in the periodic table

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Answer: A

In physics, Work, Energy, and Power are important concepts of Mechanics. They are used to understand motion, force, and energy transformation.

Work is said to be done when a force applied on an object produces displacement. The formula for work is—

Work = Force × Displacement

That is,

W = F × s

Therefore, the correct match for work is c.

Potential Energy is the energy stored in an object due to its position or height. Its formula is—

Potential Energy = mgh

where—

• m = mass

• g = acceleration due to gravity

• h = height

Therefore, the correct match for potential energy is d.

Kinetic Energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion. Its formula is—

Kinetic Energy = 1/2 mv²

where—

• m = mass

• v = velocity

Therefore, the correct match for kinetic energy is b.

Power is defined as the rate of doing work. In other words, work done per unit time is called power. Its formula is—

Power = Work / Time

That is,

P = W/t

Therefore, the correct match for power is a.

Thus, the correct matching is—

• i → c

• ii → d

• iii → b

• iv → a

According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can only be transformed from one form to another.

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Answer: C

In physics, the value of Work is calculated using the formula—

Work = Force × Displacement

That is,

W = mgh

where—

• m = mass of the object

• g = acceleration due to gravity

• h = height

In the question, both porters—

• Lifted the same mass (15 kg)

• Lifted it to the same height (2 m)

Therefore, the work done by both will be equal.

Work done by the first porter—

W = 15 × 9.8 × 2

Work done by the second porter is also—

W = 15 × 9.8 × 2

Hence, both porters perform equal work.

However, they complete the work in different times. The first porter completes it in 5 seconds, while the second porter takes 10 seconds. This difference in time affects Power.

Formula of Power—

Power = Work / Time

Since the first porter performs the same work in less time, his power is greater. The second porter takes more time, therefore his power is less.

Thus—

• Work — same for both

• Power — greater for the first porter

________________________________________

Answer: B

This question is based on a famous circuit from the “Electricity” chapter of Class 10 Science.

In the given circuit, the three resistors of 20 Ω, 10 Ω, and 5 Ω are connected in Parallel Combination. In a parallel combination, the voltage across each resistor remains the same.

The battery voltage in the circuit is given as 6 V. Therefore, the potential difference across the 10 Ω resistor will also be 6 V.

According to Ohm’s Law—

V = IR

Therefore,

I = V / R

Here,

• V = 6 V

• R = 10 Ω

So,

I = 6 / 10 = 0.6 A

Therefore, the current flowing through the 10 Ω resistor is 0.6 A.

Main features of Parallel Combination—

• Potential difference remains the same across each branch.

• Total current divides among different branches.

• Equivalent resistance becomes less than the smallest resistor.

Parallel combination is used in household wiring so that all appliances can work independently.

Answer: A

In Algebra, the Distributive Law is an important mathematical rule. It states that multiplication can be distributed over addition or subtraction.

For example:

a × (b + c) = ab + ac

However, this rule does not apply to division. Therefore:

a/(b + c) ≠ a/b + a/c

Based on this concept, the given statement:

7a/(2 + b) ≠ 7a/2 + 7a/b

is correct.

This can also be verified numerically. Let:

a = 2 and b = 2

Then,

LHS = 7×2/(2 + 2)

= 14/4

= 3.5

Whereas,

RHS = 14/2 + 14/2

= 7 + 7

= 14

Both values are not equal. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason (R) is also true because the distributive law applies only to multiplication over addition or subtraction, not to division. Therefore, Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).

Answer: C

First, let us verify Statement S₁.

Given:

tanθ + cotθ = 2

Squaring both sides:

(tanθ + cotθ)² = 2²

tan²θ + cot²θ + 2tanθ•cotθ = 4

We know that:

tanθ × cotθ = 1

Therefore,

tan²θ + cot²θ + 2 = 4

tan²θ + cot²θ = 2

But the statement says:

tan²θ + cot²θ = 4

which is incorrect. Hence, Statement S₁ is false.

Now consider Statement S₂.

Given:

cosec A = √2

We know that:

cosec 45° = √2

Therefore, A = 45°

Now,

sin45° = 1/√2

⇒ sin²45° = 1/2

cos45° = 1/√2

⇒ cos²45° = 1/2

tan45° = 1

⇒ tan²45° = 1

cot45° = 1

⇒ cot²45° = 1

Substituting these values into the given expression:

(2sin²A + 3cot²A)/(4tan²A − 2cos²A)

= [2(1/2) + 3(1)] / [4(1) − 2(1/2)]

= (1 + 3)/(4 − 1)

= 4/3

This matches the value given in the statement. Therefore, Statement S₂ is true.

Thus:

• Statement S₁ is false.

• Statement S₂ is true.

Hence, the correct option is C.

Answer: B

Total number of tickets = 40 − 13 + 1

= 28

Numbers greater than 18 and multiples of 6 are:

24, 30, 36

Number of favourable outcomes = 3

Probability = Favourable outcomes / Total outcomes

= 3/28

Therefore, the correct answer is 3/28.

Answer: D

x + y=[(√2+ 1)^2+ (√2- 1)^2 ]/[(√2+ 1)(√2- 1) ]

=[(2 + 1 + 2√2)+ (2 + 1 – 2√2) ]/[2 – 1]

=(3 + 2√2+ 3 – 2√2)/1

= 6

x² + y² + xy

= (x + y)² − 2xy + xy

= 6² − 2(1) + 1

= 36 − 2 + 1

= 35

Answer: C

Common difference, d = 205 − 213

= −8

Last term, an = 37

Formula for the nth term of an Arithmetic Progression (AP):

an = a + (n − 1)d

Substituting the values:

37 = 213 + (n − 1)(−8)

37 − 213 = −8(n − 1)

−176 = −8(n − 1)

n − 1 = 22

n = 23

Therefore, the total number of terms = 23.

Answer: B

The Fundamental Rights described in Part III of the Indian Constitution are considered the foundation of Indian democracy. These rights aim to provide citizens with social, political, and legal equality. Articles 14 to 18 deal with the Right to Equality. This right plays an important role in making India a democratic, secular, and egalitarian state.

Article 14 guarantees “Equality before Law” and “Equal Protection of Laws.” It means that the State cannot act arbitrarily against any person. This principle is inspired by the British concept of Equality before Law and the American concept of Equal Protection of Laws. Therefore, Article 14 correctly matches with statement II.

Article 15 directs the State not to discriminate against any citizen only on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. This Article also permits the State to make special provisions for women, children, and socially and educationally backward classes. It strengthens the concept of social justice. Hence, Article 15 correctly matches with statement I.

Article 16 provides equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and government appointments. Its objective is to ensure equal opportunity in public services. It also allows the State to provide reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and backward classes. Thus, it ensures both administrative equality and social representation. Therefore, Article 16 correctly matches with statement IV.

Article 17 abolishes Untouchability practiced in Indian society. The Constitution declared untouchability as an offence and made its practice punishable by law. To implement this provision effectively, Parliament passed the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, later renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1976. This Article is extremely important for protecting social equality and human dignity. Therefore, it correctly matches with statement III.

Thus, the correct matching is—

• a → II

• b → I

• c → IV

• d → III

The Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution is not limited only to legal equality, but also aims to eliminate social discrimination and make democracy more just and inclusive.

________________________________________

Answer: C

The French thinker Alexis de Tocqueville introduced the concept of “Tyranny of the Majority” in the context of democracy. He explained this idea in detail in his famous book “Democracy in America” (1835–1840).

De Tocqueville believed that in a democratic system, excessive power could become concentrated in the hands of the majority, leading to the neglect of the rights and opinions of minorities. If the majority misuses its power, it may suppress freedom of thought and individual rights. This situation was described by him as the “Tyranny of the Majority.”

The basic principle of democracy is based on popular sovereignty and representation, but modern democratic systems do not consider majority rule alone to be sufficient. Therefore, institutions such as—

• Constitution

• Fundamental Rights

• Independent Judiciary

• Federalism

• Rule of Law

have been established to protect the rights of minorities and weaker sections.

Rousseau gave the theory of the “General Will.”

Mark Twain was an American writer and humorist.

John Dunning was a British political figure, but the concept of “Tyranny of the Majority” is not associated with him.

In the Indian Constitution also, the power of the majority is limited through—

• Fundamental Rights

• Judicial Review

• Federal Structure

• Independent Election Commission

and other constitutional provisions.

________________________________________

Answer: D

François Bernier was a French physician, political philosopher, and historian. He stayed in India from 1656 to 1668 and arrived during the later phase of Shah Jahan’s reign and the Mughal war of succession.

• Bernier had close relations with Mughal prince Dara Shikoh. He also worked as Dara Shikoh’s personal physician. Therefore, statement I is correct.

• During his nearly 12 years stay in India, he travelled to many regions including Delhi, Agra, Kashmir, Bengal, and Ahmedabad. He described his experiences, Mughal administration, social system, and economic conditions in detail in his famous work “Travels in the Mughal Empire.” Therefore, statement II is also correct.

• Bernier dedicated his major accounts mainly to King Louis XIV of France. After the death of Dara Shikoh, he remained associated with the Mughal court during the reign of Aurangzeb, and his writings also mention Aurangzeb’s policies and Mughal administration. Therefore, statement III is also correct.

In the NCERT Class 12 History chapter “Through the Eyes of Travellers” (Themes in Indian History – Part II), François Bernier’s writings are considered an important source for understanding Mughal India. His accounts provide valuable information about—

• Land Revenue System

• Royal Court

• Social Structure

• Trade and Economy

• Mughal War of Succession

Answer: D

During the late 19th century, the modern press and newspapers developed rapidly in India. During this period, caricatures and cartoons based on social and political issues began to appear in Indian journals and newspapers. By the 1870s, this trend had become quite popular. Therefore, the first statement is correct.

Cartoons became an effective medium for commenting on society and politics. Through these illustrations, topics such as—

• British rule

• Social evils

• Modern education

• Western culture

• Changes taking place in Indian society

were highlighted.

Some cartoons portrayed educated Indians adopting Western dress, language, and lifestyle as symbols of modernity. At the same time, many cartoons also emphasized the need for social reforms, women’s education, opposition to caste discrimination, and social change. Therefore, the second statement is also correct.

During this period, several important social and religious reform movements were active in India, such as—

• Brahmo Samaj

• Arya Samaj

• Prarthana Samaj

• Aligarh Movement

Newspapers and journals became important mediums for spreading the ideas of these movements among the people.

In colonial India, the press played a highly significant role in the growth of—

• National consciousness

• Social reform

• Political awareness

________________________________________

Answer: D

Sufism is considered the mystical tradition of Islam, whose main objective was love for God, service to humanity, spiritual purity, and detachment from worldly attachments. Sufi saints gave more importance to inner purity and spiritual experience rather than external rituals and formalities.

The teachings of Sufi saints emphasized qualities such as—

• Love

• Compassion

• Tolerance

• Service to humanity

• Brotherhood

• Sacrifice

Therefore, “Compassion towards companions” is an important principle of Sufism.

Sufi saints generally stayed away from worldly luxury, power, and materialism. They valued simple living, meditation, devotion to God, and self-discipline. Hence, “Detachment from worldly affairs” is also a major feature of Sufism.

On the other hand, “Desire for greater power” and “Desire for luxurious life” are considered contrary to Sufi principles. Sufi saints preached staying away from material pleasures and political ambitions.

In India, the Sufi movement became especially popular during the Delhi Sultanate period. Major Sufi orders included—

• Chishti Order

• Suhrawardi Order

• Qadiri Order

• Naqshbandi Order

Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, Nizamuddin Auliya, Baba Farid, and Sheikh Salim Chishti were among the famous Sufi saints of India.

The Sufi movement played an important role in promoting—

• Religious tolerance

• Cultural harmony

• Social brotherhood

in Indian society.

________________________________________

Answer: C

The Chalukya dynasty held an important place in the medieval history of South India. The Chalukyas ruled the Deccan region for a long period. Especially after the decline of the Western Chalukyas, several regional powers emerged in South India.

After the fall of the Chalukyas, the Yadava dynasty and the Kakatiya dynasty emerged as powerful kingdoms. Therefore, the correct answer is “Yadavas and Kakatiyas.”

The Yadava dynasty is also known as the Seuna dynasty. Their capital was Devagiri (present-day Daulatabad in Maharashtra). The Yadava rulers established their influence over the Deccan region. One of the prominent rulers of this dynasty was Ramachandra. Later, Alauddin Khalji attacked Devagiri.

The Kakatiya dynasty emerged in the present-day Telangana region. Their capital was Warangal. The Kakatiya rulers promoted administration, irrigation, and trade in South India. The famous ruler Rudramadevi belonged to this dynasty and is considered one of the notable women rulers of medieval India.

During the same period, other important dynasties in South India included—

• Chola Dynasty — Tamil region

• Pandya Dynasty — Madurai region

• Hoysala Dynasty — Karnataka region

The Chalukyas, Cholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Yadavas, and Kakatiyas made significant contributions to the development of—

• Art

• Architecture

• Temple construction

• Regional culture

Answer: D

During the Mughal period, trade and commerce in India were highly developed. Many cities became major centres of internal as well as international trade. The Mughal rulers encouraged commerce through the development of roads, sarais (inns), markets, and administrative systems.

Agra, being one of the principal capitals of the Mughal Empire, was an extremely important commercial and industrial centre. It was famous for the trade of—

• Textiles

• Precious stones

• Metal crafts

• Handicrafts

European travellers such as Tavernier and Bernier also described the prosperity of Agra.

Burhanpur served as an important trade centre connecting the Deccan and North India. It was particularly famous for its cotton textile industry and cloth trade. Since it was located on the major north-south trade route, it held great economic significance.

Lahore was another major commercial city of the Mughal period. It acted as an important link between Central Asia and India. Goods such as—

• Silk

• Horses

• Spices

• Luxury items

were traded through Lahore. It was also an important centre of cultural and economic activities during Mughal rule.

In contrast, Golconda was not a major trading centre of the Mughal Empire. It was under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty of South India and was famous mainly for its diamond mines. The famous Kohinoor diamond is associated with the Golconda region. Although Golconda was economically prosperous, it was not counted among the principal Mughal trading cities.

Major trade items during the Mughal period included—

• Cotton and silk textiles

• Spices

• Indigo

• Sugar

• Opium

• Precious stones

European companies such as the East India Company, the Dutch East India Company, and the French trading companies also began actively participating in Indian trade during this period.

________________________________________

Answer: A

A detailed description of the irrigation system is found in the Arthashastra. This text is believed to have been written by Kautilya (Chanakya/Vishnugupta), who was the Prime Minister and political advisor of Chandragupta Maurya.

The Arthashastra is an important ancient Indian text dealing with—

• Politics

• Economics

• Administration

• Taxation

• Agriculture

• Irrigation

• Trade

• Judicial system

• Military organization

Kautilya considered agriculture as the foundation of economic prosperity. He emphasized the construction of—

• Canals

• Reservoirs

• Dams

• Irrigation facilities

The Arthashastra mentions that it was the duty of the state to ensure adequate water supply for farmers.

During the Mauryan period, artificial irrigation systems were developed to increase agricultural production. The Sudarshana Lake is an important example, originally constructed during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya and later repaired by the Shaka ruler Rudradaman.

Other options—

• Nitisara was a political text written by Kamandaka.

• Ashtadhyayi is the famous Sanskrit grammar text written by Panini.

• Shaddarshana refers to the six classical schools of Indian philosophy.

The Arthashastra is regarded not only as a political treatise but also as an important source for understanding the economic and administrative structure of ancient India.

________________________________________

Answer: B

Most of the world’s major deserts are located in the subtropical regions along the western margins of continents. This is an important principle of climatology. Examples include—

• Sahara Desert — Western part of Africa

• Atacama Desert — Western coast of South America

• Kalahari Desert — Southern Africa

• Australian Deserts — Western Australia

The formation of these deserts is mainly influenced by—

• Subtropical high-pressure belts

• Dry trade winds

• Cold ocean currents

Therefore, Assertion (A) is correct.

The Reason (R) is also correct. Trade winds generally pick up moisture from oceans and bring rainfall to the eastern coasts of continents. As these winds move across the interior regions of continents, they gradually lose their moisture. By the time they reach the western coasts, they become comparatively dry.

In addition, cold ocean currents flowing near the western coasts stabilize the atmosphere and reduce rainfall. Examples include—

• Peru Current — Atacama Desert

• Benguela Current — Namib Desert

• Canary Current — Sahara region

Thus, the Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).

Major characteristics of desert climate include—

• Very low rainfall

• Extreme difference between day and night temperatures

• Sparse vegetation

• Dry winds

In India, the Thar Desert is located in the western part of Rajasthan. Its desert conditions are influenced by—

• Dry climate

• Low rainfall

• The position of the Aravalli Range

Answer: D

Note: The correct matching is a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV, but this combination was not available in the original options. This option has been added by Examdhara as an error correction.

In the naming of Indian rural settlements, local geographical, historical, and social features have played an important role. The words used in the names of villages and settlements often indicate the geographical condition, size, historical background, or social structure of a region.

The word “Kalan” is used for a large village or large settlement. It is generally added at the end of a village name. For example, if two villages have the same name, the larger one is identified with “Kalan” and the smaller one with “Khurd”. Therefore, “Kalan” correctly matches with statement II.

The word “Khurd” is derived from the Persian language and means “small.” It is used to indicate a small settlement or small village. Therefore, “Khurd” correctly matches with statement III.

The word “Pura” generally indicates a place where an old settlement or habitation existed earlier. It points towards historical settlement patterns. Therefore, “Pura” correctly matches with statement I.

The word “Kheda” is used for small settlements, colonies, or elevated village land. This term is commonly found in rural settlement names in states such as Rajasthan, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh. Therefore, “Kheda” correctly matches with statement IV.

Thus, the correct matching is—

• a → I

• b → II

• c → III

• d → IV

The study of rural settlements is an important part of Human Geography. It provides valuable information about—

• Settlement patterns

• Social structure

• Historical development

• Agriculture and resource utilization

________________________________________

Answer: C

The book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” was written by Dadabhai Naoroji. This book is considered extremely important in the history of Indian economic nationalism. In this work, Naoroji presented a detailed analysis of the economic exploitation of India under British rule.

Dadabhai Naoroji is known as the “Grand Old Man of India.” He was one of the founding leaders of the Indian National Congress and served as its president three times. He was also the first Indian elected to the British Parliament.

In this book, he presented the famous “Drain Theory.” According to this theory, India’s wealth and resources were continuously transferred to Britain, which was the main reason for increasing poverty in India. He explained that—

• Appointment of British officials to high administrative posts

• Drain of wealth from India through taxes

• Heavy expenditure on army and administration

• Trade benefits enjoyed by Britain

were weakening the Indian economy.

Dadabhai Naoroji’s work provided an important ideological foundation for the Indian National Movement and strengthened criticism of British economic policies.

R. C. Dutt wrote important works on the economic history of India.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a moderate nationalist leader and social reformer.

Chittaranjan Das was a famous freedom fighter and founder of the Swaraj Party.

________________________________________

Answer: A

The Siachen Glacier is regarded as the world’s highest battlefield. It is located in the Karakoram Mountain Range. The glacier lies in the northern part of the Union Territory of Ladakh in India.

The Siachen Glacier is approximately 76 kilometres long and is among the longest non-polar glaciers in the world. It has immense strategic importance because it is situated near the sensitive border regions of India, Pakistan, and China.

India established strategic control over the Siachen region through Operation Meghdoot in 1984. Since then, Indian soldiers have been deployed there under extremely harsh climatic conditions.

Major features of the Karakoram Range include—

• Some of the world’s highest peaks are located here.

• K2 (Godwin Austen), the world’s second-highest peak, lies in this range.

• The region is famous for a large number of glaciers.

The Pir Panjal and Zanskar are other Himalayan mountain ranges, while the Dhauladhar Range is located mainly in Himachal Pradesh.

The Siachen region is known for—

• Extreme altitude

• Snowstorms

• Temperatures far below freezing point

Soldiers stationed there face severe challenges not only from enemy conditions but also from the harsh natural environment.

________________________________________

Answer: A

In the Indian Armed Forces, the Army, Navy, and Air Force use different rank titles, but equivalent ranks are clearly defined. In the Indian Navy, the rank equivalent to a Major General in the Indian Army is Rear Admiral.

A Rear Admiral is a two-star rank and belongs to the senior officer category in the Navy.

Equivalent ranks in the three services are as follows—

Army Navy Air Force

Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal

The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.

The headquarters of the Indian Navy is located in New Delhi, and it is headed by the Chief of Naval Staff (CNS). The motto of the Indian Navy is—

“Sham No Varunah”

The Indian Navy plays an important role in ensuring—

• Maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region

• Protection of trade routes

• Safeguarding India’s strategic interests

________________________________________

Answer: A

The Lota Rebellion was an important protest movement carried out by prisoners in the Muzaffarpur jail of Bihar. It is regarded as a symbol of resistance against the oppressive rules of British colonial administration.

The main reason behind this rebellion was the jail administration’s decision to replace the brass lotas (water vessels) used by prisoners with earthen pots. The prisoners considered this an interference in their religious, social, and personal rights.

At that time, brass vessels were not merely utility items but were closely associated with the prisoners’ daily lifestyle and social beliefs. The replacement with earthen utensils created widespread dissatisfaction, leading to protest and rebellion inside the jail.

Some historical sources trace the initial background of the rebellion to the end of 1855, but in most Bihar-related competitive examinations and standard reference materials, the year 1856 is accepted as the main year of the rebellion.

The rebellion is considered an important example of the growing anti-British sentiment in Bihar just before the Revolt of 1857. During this period, opposition to British policies was rapidly increasing across Bihar and northern India.

Major causes of the Revolt of 1857 included—

• Oppressive British policies

• Discontent among soldiers

• Fear of religious interference

• Economic exploitation

• Social dissatisfaction

Note: In the research paper “Modern Bihar: A Historical Study” written by Dr. Shyam Murti Bharti, Department of History, Ram Narayan College, Pandaul, Madhubani (Bihar), published in the International Journal of History (2022), the year of the Muzaffarpur Lota Rebellion is also mentioned as 1856. Therefore, most Bihar-related competitive examinations and authentic reference materials accept 1856 as the correct answer. Some sources connect its preliminary background with 1855, but the principal year of the rebellion is considered to be 1856.

Referance: https://www.historyjournal.net/article/198/5-1-33-905.pdf

Answer: B

Airbnb is a global online platform through which people can rent out their homes, rooms, or other accommodations to travelers. It was established in 2008.

The founders of Airbnb are—

• Brian Chesky

• Joe Gebbia

• Nathan Blecharczyk

Therefore, Amanpreet Singh Bajaj is not a founder of Airbnb. He has worked in corporate positions associated with Airbnb in India, but he was not a co-founder of the company.

Airbnb started in San Francisco, USA. Initially, the founders placed air mattresses in their apartment to provide accommodation to travelers, which led to the name “Air Bed and Breakfast,” later shortened to “Airbnb.”

Today, Airbnb operates in many countries around the world and has become an important digital platform in the tourism and hospitality industry. It is considered a major example of the Sharing Economy, where individuals share their personal property or services through digital platforms.

________________________________________

Answer: B

Itanagar is the capital of the northeastern Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. The state is located in the northeastern part of India and is the largest state in Northeast India in terms of area.

Arunachal Pradesh shares its borders with—

• China (Tibet) in the north

• Myanmar in the east

• Bhutan in the west

• Assam and Nagaland in the south

The name Itanagar is derived from the historic Ita Fort. The word “Ita” means brick. This fort is considered an important historical site from the medieval period.

Arunachal Pradesh is famous for its—

• Tribal culture

• Biodiversity

• Mountainous landscape

• Buddhist monasteries

Major tribes of the state include—

• Nyishi

• Adi

• Apatani

• Mishmi

• Monpa

Major rivers of the state are—

• Siang

• Subansiri

• Lohit

• Dibang

These rivers later become part of the Brahmaputra river system.

Capitals of the other options are—

• Meghalaya — Shillong

• Manipur — Imphal

• Mizoram — Aizawl

________________________________________

Answer: A

Between 2011 and 2024, Bihar recorded the third-highest growth in the transport and communication sector. This growth became possible due to the expansion of—

• Road infrastructure

• Railway connectivity

• Telecommunication services

• Internet connectivity

• Digital services

In recent years, Bihar has witnessed rapid development in—

• National highways

• Rural road construction

• Bridges and flyover projects

• Mobile and internet penetration

• Digital governance

The transport and communication sector is considered an important indicator of the economic development of a state because it helps in—

• Promoting trade and industry

• Increasing employment opportunities

• Improving accessibility in rural areas

• Expanding education and healthcare services

In Bihar, schemes and initiatives such as—

• Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)

• Digital India Programme

• Railway and road infrastructure projects

have contributed significantly to the growth of this sector.

The importance of the transport and communication sector in Bihar’s economy has been continuously increasing, especially due to the expansion of—

• E-commerce

• Mobile banking

• Online services

Answer: C

A DBMS (Database Management System) is software used to store, organize, manage, and retrieve data.

Oracle, MySQL, and PostgreSQL are all popular DBMS software systems. They are widely used in websites, banking systems, government institutions, and business organizations.

In contrast, Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet program, not a DBMS. It is mainly used for—

• Creating data tables

• Performing calculations

• Preparing charts

• Statistical analysis

Although Excel can store data, it does not provide advanced DBMS features such as—

• Relational database management

• SQL support

• Multi-user control

• Transaction management

• Data security and normalization

Oracle DBMS is widely used in large enterprises.

MySQL is extremely popular for web applications and websites.

PostgreSQL is an open-source relational DBMS known for its advanced SQL features.

________________________________________

Answer: B

World Health Day is celebrated every year on 7 April. The purpose of this day is to spread awareness about health-related issues, disease prevention, sanitation, and better healthcare services across the world.

This day is observed to mark the establishment of the World Health Organization (WHO). WHO was founded on 7 April 1948. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

The major functions of WHO include—

• Formulating global health policies

• Controlling epidemics and pandemics

• Promoting vaccination programmes

• Improving maternal and child health

• Creating awareness about nutrition and sanitation

Every year, a special theme is selected for World Health Day. These themes focus on current global health challenges such as—

• Mental health

• Universal healthcare

• Climate change and health

• Control of infectious diseases

• Health equity

In India, several important schemes have been launched to strengthen the health sector, such as—

• Ayushman Bharat Yojana

• National Health Mission (NHM)

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana

• Mission Indradhanush

During the COVID-19 pandemic, WHO played an important role in global health coordination and vaccination awareness.

________________________________________

Answer: A

The novel “Untouchable” was written by Mulk Raj Anand. It was published in 1935 and is considered one of the earliest and most important works of Indian English literature.

The novel presents a realistic picture of untouchability, caste discrimination, and social inequality in Indian society. The main character of the story is Bakha, who belongs to a sweeper community. The author sensitively portrays his daily life, humiliation, and experiences of discrimination.

Mulk Raj Anand was one of the leading novelists of Indian English literature. His writings mainly focused on the problems faced by the poor, laborers, and marginalized sections of society. His other famous works include—

• Coolie

• Two Leaves and a Bud

• The Big Heart

His literary style was influenced by Mahatma Gandhi and various social reform movements.

Ismat Chughtai was a famous Urdu writer known for the story “Lihaaf.”

R.K. Narayan is famous for “Malgudi Days” and “The Guide.”

Kamala Das was a noted writer and poet in English and Malayalam literature.

Answer: C

• M = P + 2

• L = O + 2

• O = (L + N)/2

• P = (L + M)/2

• L = (P + O)/2

Now,

L = O + 2

Let O = x

Then,

L = x + 2

Now,

L = (P + O)/2

x + 2 = (P + x)/2

2x + 4 = P + x

P = x + 4

Now,

M = P + 2

= x + 6

Using—

O = (L + N)/2

x = (x + 2 + N)/2

2x = x + 2 + N

N = x − 2

Thus, the ages are—

• N = x − 2

• O = x

• L = x + 2

• P = x + 4

• M = x + 6

Clearly, N is the youngest.

Age order—

N < O < L < P < M

________________________________________

Answer: C

7c, 9a, 8b = see good pictures

9a, 4d, 2b = pictures and faint

The common word in the second and third statements is “pictures,” and the common code is “9a.”

⇒ pictures = 9a

The common word in the first and third statements is “and,” and the common code is “2b.”

⇒ and = 2b

Now in the first statement, the remaining codes are—

3a, 7c = good, tasty

In the second statement, the remaining codes are—

7c, 8b = see, good

The common code is “7c,” so—

⇒ good = 7c

Therefore, the remaining code “8b” means “see.”

⇒ see = 8b

________________________________________

Answer: C

• M = division (÷)

• N = addition (+)

• P = subtraction (−)

• B = multiplication (×)

Now the expression—

13P13B36M9N17

becomes—

= 13 − 13 × 36 ÷ 9 + 17

Using BODMAS rule—

= 13 − 13 × 4 + 17

= 13 − 52 + 17

= −22

Answer: D

In the four different positions of the given dice, we analyze the colors appearing adjacent to the yellow face.

• In Dice 1, yellow appears with orange and blue.

• In Dice 3, yellow appears with blue and red.

• In Dice 4, yellow appears with red and pink.

Thus, the colors adjacent to yellow are—

• Orange

• Blue

• Red

• Pink

We know that in a cube (dice), each face has exactly four adjacent faces and only one opposite face.

Since the four adjacent colors to yellow have already been identified, the only remaining color is violet. Therefore, violet must be opposite to yellow.

Hence, the color opposite to the yellow face is Violet.

Answer: B

In the first position, the faces adjacent to 4 are 3 and 1.

In the second position, the faces adjacent to 4 are 2 and 6.

Thus, the four faces adjacent to 4 are—

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 6

The only remaining number is 5, so 5 must be opposite to 4.

Therefore, if 5 is on the bottom face, then the opposite face, i.e. the top face, will be 4.

________________________________________

Answer: A

For mirror image clock problems, the standard formula used to find the actual time is—

Actual Time = 11:60 − Mirror Time

Given mirror time = 9:30

So,

11:60

− 9:30

= 2:30

Therefore, the correct time is 2:30.

In mirror-image clock questions, the time appears reversed in the mirror. Hence, subtraction from 11:60 is used to find the real time.

________________________________________

Answer: C

Observe the alphabetical positions—

E → M

K → S

Both letters move 8 positions forward.

• E + 8 = M

• K + 8 = S

Similarly—

• A + 8 = I

• G + 8 = O

Therefore,

AG : IO :: EK : MS

Hence, the correct answer is IO.

Answer: B

Given symbols—

• P + Q → P is the father of Q

• P − Q → P is the mother of Q

• P × Q → P is the brother of Q

• P ÷ Q → P is the sister of Q

• P * Q → P is the son of Q

• P # Q → P is the daughter of Q

Expression:

A + B × C ÷ D * E # F

The flow of relationships is as follows—

• E # F ⇒ E is the daughter of F.

• D * E ⇒ D is the son of E.

• C ÷ D ⇒ C is the sister of D.

• B × C ⇒ B is the brother of C.

• A + B ⇒ A is the father of B.

Therefore, A will be the son-in-law of F.

________________________________________

Answer: C

(i) P + Q means P is the father of Q.

(ii) P − Q means P is the mother of Q.

(iii) P × Q means P is the brother of Q.

(iv) P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q.

(v) P * Q means P is the son of Q.

(vi) P # Q means P is the daughter of Q.

Find the relation of F to A in the following expression—

A # B – C * D + E ÷ F

According to the given symbols—

• A # B ⇒ A is the daughter of B.

• B − C ⇒ B is the mother of C.

• C * D ⇒ C is the son of D.

• D + E ⇒ D is the father of E.

• E ÷ F ⇒ E is the sister of F.

E is the sister of F. This means F can be either the brother or sister of E.

Here, the gender of F is not clear because only E is confirmed as female. Therefore, F can be either a brother or a sister of A.

________________________________________

Answer: B

Principal (P) = ₹8000

Rate (R) = 10% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

ⅰ. Compound Interest compounded annually

Formula—

A = P(1 + R/100)^T

= 8000(1 + 10/100)^2

= 8000(1.1)^2

= 8000 × 1.21

= ₹9680

ⅱ. Compound Interest compounded half-yearly

For half-yearly compounding—

• Rate = 10/2 = 5%

• Time = 2 × 2 = 4 half-years

Now,

A = 8000(1 + 5/100)^4

= 8000(1.05)^4

= 8000 × 1.2155

≈ ₹9724.05

Thus—

i. ₹9680

ii. ₹9724.05

Answer: C

Outer diameter = 15 m

⇒ Outer radius = 15/2 = 7.5 m

Thickness of sphere = 0.5 m

⇒ Inner radius = 7.5 − 0.5

= 7 m

Area available for the motorcyclist = Inner surface area of hollow sphere

Surface area of sphere = 4πr²

= 4 × (22/7) × (7)^2

= 4 × (22/7) × 49

= 616 m²

Answer: C

When two dice are thrown together, total possible outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36

Favourable outcomes for sum 9 are—

• (3, 6)

• (4, 5)

• (5, 4)

• (6, 3)

Number of favourable outcomes = 4

Probability = Favourable outcomes / Total outcomes

= 4/36

= 1/9

∴ Probability of getting sum 9 = 1/9

________________________________________

Answer: A

We know that—

(a + b + c)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

Given expression—

4x² + 9y² + 16z² − 12xy + 16xz − 24yz

Now compare the square terms—

• 4x² = (−2x)^2

• 9y² = (3y)^2

• 16z² = (−4z)^2

Now check the middle terms—

• 2(−2x)(3y) = −12xy

• 2(3y)(−4z) = −24yz

• 2(−2x)(−4z) = +16xz

All terms match the given expression.

Therefore—

4x² + 9y² + 16z² − 12xy + 16xz − 24yz

= (−2x + 3y − 4z)^2

Hence, the correct option is A.

Answer: B

Volume of a cylinder = πr²h

Volume of a cone = (1/3)πr²h

If the radius and height of the cylinder and cone are equal, then—

Volume of cylinder : Volume of cone

= πr²h : (1/3)πr²h

= 3 : 1

Thus, the volume of the cylinder is three times the volume of the cone. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

Now check Reason (R)—

Volume of cylinder = πr²h

If the radius is doubled, then new radius = 2r

And if the height is halved, then new height = h/2

New volume—

= π(2r)²(h/2)

= π × 4r² × h/2

= 2πr²h

This is twice the original volume. Therefore, Reason (R) is also true.

But Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A), because Assertion is based on the relation between the volumes of a cone and a cylinder, whereas Reason is related to changes in the radius and height of a cylinder.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Answer: D

The famous political thinker Harold J. Laski considered equality as the foundation of democracy. According to Laski, equality does not merely mean legal equality, but ensuring equal opportunities and dignity for all individuals in social, economic, and political life.

Laski explained several important elements of equality—

• Absence of special privileges: No class in society should enjoy special rights based on birth, caste, religion, wealth, or position.

• Equal opportunities: Every individual should receive adequate opportunities for the development of their abilities.

• Access to social benefits: Education, healthcare, employment, and other social facilities should be equally available to all citizens.

• Absence of exploitation: Economic and social exploitation must end for real equality to exist.

Laski’s concept of equality was based on positive equality. He believed that mere legal equality was not sufficient and emphasized social justice and equality of economic opportunities.

In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is described in Articles 14 to 18. These include—

• Equality before law

• Prohibition of discrimination

• Equality of opportunity in public employment

• Abolition of untouchability

• Abolition of titles

________________________________________

Answer: C

During the early phase of British rule, peasants, sanyasis, and tribal communities launched several revolts against the oppressive land revenue policies, economic exploitation, and atrocities of the British. These revolts hold an important place in the history of the Indian freedom struggle.

The chronological order of these movements is—

Sanyasi Revolt — began around 1763

Rangpur Peasant Revolt — 1783

Pagal Panthi Revolt — in the early decades of the 19th century, especially around 1825

Barasat Peasant Revolt — 1831

Thus, the correct sequence is—

2 → 3 → 4 → 1

Sanyasi Revolt

This revolt took place in Bengal. Due to the Bengal Famine of 1770 and the harsh taxation policies of the British, dissatisfaction spread among sanyasis and peasants. The sanyasis and fakirs opposed British authority.

Rangpur Peasant Revolt

This revolt occurred in the Rangpur region of present-day Bangladesh. Peasants protested against excessive tax collection by British officials and zamindars.

Pagal Panthi Revolt

This movement was led by Karam Shah and later by Tipu Shah. It was mainly a movement of poor peasants and tribal communities of Bengal.

Barasat Peasant Revolt

This revolt took place in the Barasat region of Bengal under the leadership of Titu Mir (Syed Mir Nisar Ali). He organized peasants against the exploitation by zamindars and the British. Titu Mir also built the famous Bamboo Fort.

________________________________________

Answer: B

The concept of Bodhisattva is mainly associated with Mahayana Buddhism, not the Hinayana sect. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

In Mahayana Buddhism, a Bodhisattva is a person who has chosen the path of enlightenment but does not seek Nirvana solely for personal salvation. Instead, they work for the welfare and liberation of all living beings. Hence, Bodhisattvas are regarded as symbols of compassion and mercy. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Statement III is incorrect because a Bodhisattva postpones final Nirvana for the benefit of others rather than attaining it only for personal salvation. The idea of personal liberation is more closely associated with the Hinayana (Theravada) tradition, where the ideal of the Arhat is emphasized.

Buddhism originated in the 6th century BCE. Its founder was Gautama Buddha, who was born in Lumbini. Buddha preached—

• The Four Noble Truths

• The Eightfold Path

• The Middle Path

The major sects of Buddhism are—

• Hinayana (Theravada)

• Mahayana

• Vajrayana

In Mahayana Buddhism, Buddha came to be regarded as divine, and the concepts of idol worship and Bodhisattva developed.

Answer: D

During British rule in India, several important events related to the agricultural system, land revenue policies, and the condition of peasants took place. Understanding the correct chronology of these events is an important part of modern Indian history.

Permanent Settlement in Bengal — 1793

This system was introduced by Lord Cornwallis. Under this arrangement, zamindars were recognized as permanent landowners and a fixed revenue was imposed. The main objective was to ensure a stable income for the British government.

Fifth Report of the Select Committee — 1813

This report was prepared by a Select Committee of the British Parliament. It provided a detailed account of the administration of the East India Company and the agricultural and revenue conditions of Bengal.

Santhal Revolt — 1855–56

This revolt took place in the present-day Jharkhand and Bihar regions. The Santhal tribe revolted against the exploitation by moneylenders, zamindars, and British officials. Its major leaders were Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand, and Bhairav.

Deccan Riots Commission — 1875

Peasants in the Deccan region of Maharashtra revolted against moneylenders and the exploitative credit system. To investigate the incident, the British government established the Deccan Riots Commission. Later, the Deccan Agriculturists Relief Act, 1879 was passed to improve the condition of farmers.

Thus, the correct chronological order is—

I → IV → III → II

Hence, the correct option is D.

________________________________________

Answer: C

Lord Cornwallis was an important administrator during British rule in India. He served as the Governor-General of Bengal from 1786 to 1793. He introduced administrative, judicial, and revenue reforms. The Permanent Settlement of 1793 introduced by him was a major change in the Indian agrarian system. Therefore—

a → 3

Augustus Cleveland was a British officer who adopted the Policy of Pacification in tribal regions, especially in the Rajmahal Hills. His objective was to bring the Paharia tribes under British administration. Therefore—

b → 4

Francis Buchanan was a physician, surveyor, and observer. He surveyed different regions of India and prepared detailed accounts related to agriculture, society, trade, and the lifestyle of the people. His records are considered important sources of modern Indian history. Therefore—

c → 1

David Ricardo was a famous British economist. He propounded the Theory of Comparative Advantage and the Theory of Rent. His book “Principles of Political Economy and Taxation” (1817) is highly famous. Therefore—

d → 2

Thus, the correct matching is—

• a → 3

• b → 4

• c → 1

• d → 2

________________________________________

Answer: A

The Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization) was one of the world’s earliest urban civilizations. It extended across present-day Pakistan, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab. The civilization is famous for its advanced town planning, drainage system, trade activities, and handicraft industries.

The correct matching of the Harappan sites with their special features is as follows—

Lothal — Near source of carnelian

Lothal, located in present-day Gujarat, is considered an important port city of the Harappan Civilization. Evidence of a dockyard has been found here, indicating the development of maritime trade. Lothal was especially famous for the manufacture and trade of carnelian beads, a semi-precious red stone used for ornaments.

Therefore—

1 → b

Kalibangan — Evidence of ploughed field

Kalibangan is located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan. Important agricultural evidence has been discovered here. Archaeologists found traces of a ploughed field, considered among the earliest known agricultural evidences in the world. This shows that the Harappans were familiar with advanced agricultural techniques.

Therefore—

2 → c

Dholavira — Reservoirs found

Dholavira, situated in the Kutch region of Gujarat, was a highly developed Harappan city. Evidence of massive reservoirs, dams, and water conservation systems has been discovered here. Its water management system reflects the scientific and technological advancement of the Harappans.

Therefore—

3 → d

Nageshwar — Specialized center for shell objects

Nageshwar, located in Gujarat, was famous for its shell industry. Evidence of shell ornaments and shell-working workshops has been found here.

Therefore—

4 → a

Thus, the correct matching is—

• 1-b

• 2-c

• 3-d

• 4-a

Other important Harappan sites include—

• Mohenjo-daro — famous for the Great Bath

• Harappa — famous for granaries

• Rakhigarhi — the largest Harappan site in India

• Chanhudaro — bead-making center

________________________________________

Answer: D

The Sufi Movement was an important religious and social movement in medieval India that emphasized love, humanity, tolerance, and devotion to God. Sufi saints promoted brotherhood and communal harmony in society. Among the various Sufi orders in India, the Chishti Silsila became the most popular and influential.

The correct chronological order of the Chishti saints is as follows—

Sheikh Muinuddin Chishti

He is regarded as the founder of the Chishti order in India. He came to India in the 12th century and made Ajmer his center. He was popularly known as “Gharib Nawaz” because of his service to the poor and needy. His shrine at Ajmer Sharif is one of the major pilgrimage centers in India.

Therefore—

IV came first.

Sheikh Fariduddin Ganj-e-Shakar (Baba Farid)

He was a great Sufi saint of the Punjab region. His teachings emphasized love, simplicity, and service to humanity. Some of his verses are also included in the Guru Granth Sahib, reflecting his influence.

Therefore—

II came next.

Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya

He was one of the most famous Sufi saints of Delhi. He maintained distance from politics and emphasized human love and service. His prominent disciple was Amir Khusro, who made remarkable contributions to music and literature.

Therefore—

I came after that.

Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirag-e-Delhi

He was the chief disciple and successor of Nizamuddin Auliya. He was known as “Chirag-e-Delhi” and carried forward the Chishti tradition in Delhi.

Therefore—

III came last.

Thus, the correct order is—

IV → II → I → III

Answer: B

In 2024, the prestigious Pulitzer Prize in the category of Editorial Writing was awarded to David E. Hoffman. He is a senior journalist and writer associated with the famous American newspaper The Washington Post.

He received this award for a deeply researched editorial series focusing on the use of new technologies, surveillance systems, and authoritarian strategies by governments in the digital age to suppress dissent.

The Pulitzer Prize was established in memory of American journalist and publisher Joseph Pulitzer. The first Pulitzer Prize was awarded in 1917. It is presented in several categories, including journalism, literature, music, drama, and editorial writing.

Some notable Pulitzer Prize awards in 2024 included—

• The New York Times received the award for International Reporting for its coverage of the Gaza war.

• Reuters was honored for Breaking News Photography.

• Justin Chang received the award in the Criticism category.

About the other options—

• Kathleen Kingsbury won the Pulitzer Prize for Editorial Writing in 2015 for The Boston Globe.

• Nikole Hannah-Jones received the Pulitzer Prize in 2020 in the Commentary category for The 1619 Project published in The New York Times Magazine.

• Bret Stephens won the Pulitzer Prize in 2013 in the Commentary category for The Wall Street Journal.

The Pulitzer Prize is often regarded as the “Oscar Award of Journalism.”

________________________________________

Answer: C

The world-famous “Harry Potter” series was written by J.K. Rowling. This series is considered one of the most popular works of fantasy literature in modern times.

The first book of the series, “Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone,” was published in 1997. Altogether, seven novels were published, describing the magical school Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry and the adventurous life of Harry Potter.

The major characters in the Harry Potter series are—

• Harry Potter

• Hermione Granger

• Ron Weasley

• Lord Voldemort

• Albus Dumbledore

The series has been translated into many languages worldwide, and the films based on it also became extremely popular.

Among the other options—

• J.R.R. Tolkien is the author of “The Lord of the Rings” and “The Hobbit.”

• C.S. Lewis wrote “The Chronicles of Narnia.”

• Roald Dahl is famous for children’s literature works such as “Charlie and the Chocolate Factory.”

J.K. Rowling’s Harry Potter series gave children’s and young adult literature a new level of global popularity.

________________________________________

Answer: A

The full form of UNSC is United Nations Security Council. It is considered the most important organ of the United Nations Organization (UNO).

The United Nations was established on 24 October 1945 after the Second World War with the objective of maintaining international peace and security. Its headquarters is located in New York, USA.

The main functions of the Security Council include—

• Maintaining international peace and security

• Preventing wars and conflicts

• Sending peacekeeping forces

• Imposing sanctions

• Recommending new member countries

The UNSC has a total of 15 members—

• 5 Permanent Members

• 10 Non-Permanent Members

The permanent members are—

• United States

• Russia

• China

• United Kingdom

• France

These countries possess Veto Power.

India has served several times as a non-permanent member of the UNSC and has long demanded permanent membership in the Security Council.

Other major organs of the United Nations include—

• General Assembly

• Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)

• International Court of Justice (ICJ)

• Secretariat

________________________________________

Answer: A

The full form of IFC-IOR is Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region. It is an important maritime security center established by India to strengthen monitoring, information sharing, and security cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

This center was established by the Indian Navy in 2018 at Gurugram, Haryana. Its primary objective is to monitor—

• Piracy

• Smuggling

• Terrorist activities

• Illegal fishing

• Suspicious maritime movements

in the Indian Ocean Region.

IFC-IOR holds special importance in India’s maritime security policy because the Indian Ocean is one of the world’s most important trade routes. A large portion of global oil and commercial trade passes through this region.

The IFC-IOR shares maritime information with various countries and international organizations, thereby enhancing maritime cooperation and security.

Some major initiatives related to India’s maritime security are—

• SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region)

• Indo-Pacific Policy

• Malabar Naval Exercise

Answer: B

In the question, different symbols are assigned specific meanings. First, convert these symbols into standard mathematical signs—

• α = greater than ( > )

• ß = equal to ( = )

• θ = not less than ( ≥ )

• γ = less than ( < )

• δ = not equal to ( ≠ )

• η = not greater than ( ≤ )

Now interpret the given statements—

C α 2d

means—

C > 2d

Second statement—

2d θ s

means—

2d ≥ s

This means that 2d is either equal to or greater than s.

Now combine both relations—

• C > 2d

• 2d ≥ s

Since C is greater than 2d and 2d is greater than or equal to s, it is definite that C is greater than s.

Therefore—

C > s

According to the given symbols—

“greater than” = α

Hence—

C α s

So, the correct option is B.

________________________________________

Answer: A

Given—

MIKE → 2%#$

From this, we get—

• M = 2

• I = %

• K = #

• E = $

Now the second word—

KOAL → #@75

From this—

• K = #

• O = @

• A = 7

• L = 5

Now convert AIM into the code—

• A = 7

• I = %

• M = 2

Therefore—

AIM → 7%2

So, the correct answer is A.

________________________________________

Answer: D

Given word—

TEACHER → KAELRAS

Now observe the coding of each letter—

• T → K

• E → A

• A → E

• C → L

• H → R

• E → A

• R → S

Now apply the same pattern to CHEATER—

• C → L

• H → R

• E → A

• A → E

• T → K

• E → A

• R → S

Therefore—

CHEATER → LRAEKAS

So, the correct option is D.

Answer: A

This question is based on the Opposite Letter Pattern in the English alphabet.

In the English alphabet, the opposite letter of any letter is the one whose position number adds up to 27.

For example—

• A ↔ Z

• B ↔ Y

• C ↔ X

• D ↔ W

Now observe the word “DIAMOND”—

Original Letter Opposite Letter Code

D W V

I R Q

A Z Y

M N M

O L K

N M L

D W V

Here, the code is formed by taking one letter before the opposite letter.

Now apply the same rule to “FEMALE”—

Original Letter Opposite Letter Code

F U T

E V U

M N M

A Z Y

L O N

E V U

Therefore, the code becomes—

TUMYNU

Hence, the correct answer is A.

Answer: B

In this question, the position of the arrow can be observed in the anti-clockwise direction. If we consider the four corners and the midpoints of the sides of the rectangle as positions numbered from 1 to 8 respectively, then—

• In the first figure, the arrow is at position 1.

• In the second figure, the arrow reaches position 3.

• In the third figure, the arrow is at position 4.

• In the fourth figure, the arrow reaches position 6.

Thus, the arrow is continuously moving in the anti-clockwise direction. Therefore, in the next figure, the arrow should be at position 7.

Among the given options, only option A shows the arrow at position 7.

A.

Answer: A

In this question, the main pattern is based on the position of the ‘+’ sign. If we number the sides and corners of the square from 1 to 8 respectively and observe the movement of the ‘+’ sign, it is moving in the anti-clockwise direction.

The sequence of positions is as follows—

• In the first figure, the ‘+’ sign is at position 1.

• In the second figure, it reaches position 3.

• In the third figure, it is at position 4.

• In the fourth figure, it reaches position 6.

Thus, in the next figure, the ‘+’ sign should be at position 7, which will be located at the middle of the upper side.

A.

Answer: A

In domestic electric circuits, electrical appliances are generally connected in a parallel combination. Therefore, Assertion (A) is completely true.

In a parallel combination, each appliance is connected directly to the main power supply. As a result, every appliance receives the same potential difference (Voltage). In India, domestic electric supply is generally 220 V, so appliances like fans, bulbs, refrigerators, televisions, and coolers receive the required voltage equally.

Major advantages of parallel combination—

• Each appliance works independently.

• If one appliance gets damaged, the others continue to function.

• Each appliance can be controlled separately using individual switches.

• All appliances receive the same voltage.

If appliances were connected in series combination, several problems would arise—

• The same current would flow through all appliances, although their requirements are different.

• Voltage would get divided among the appliances.

• If one appliance failed, the entire circuit would break and all appliances would stop working.

In electricity, the principle of parallel combination is based on Ohm’s Law and the concepts of electric current and potential difference. This is why domestic wiring systems are based on parallel connection.

Thus, Reason (R) is true and it correctly explains Assertion (A).

________________________________________

Answer: C

The bending of plants towards light is called Phototropism. It is an important biological response in plants in which the plant grows towards the light source. In this process, a plant hormone called Auxin plays the major role.

Auxin is produced in the shoot apex of the plant. When light falls from one direction, auxin moves away from the illuminated side and accumulates more on the shaded side. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

The higher concentration of auxin on the shaded side causes cell elongation, not cell division. As a result, the cells on the shaded side become longer, causing the plant to bend towards the light. Therefore, Statement IV is correct, while Statement III is incorrect.

Statement I is also incorrect because auxin accumulates more in the shaded region, not in the illuminated region.

Auxin is an important plant growth hormone that controls—

• Cell elongation

• Growth of roots and shoots

• Phototropism

• Geotropism

Other important plant hormones include—

• Gibberellin — Stem growth

• Cytokinin — Cell division

• Abscisic Acid (ABA) — Growth inhibitor

• Ethylene — Fruit ripening

________________________________________

Answer: A

Millions of kinds of organisms are found in the living world. Since the same organism may have different local names in different regions and languages, confusion arose in scientific study. To remove this problem, the system of Binomial Nomenclature was developed. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

This system was developed by the famous scientist Carolus Linnaeus, who is known as the Father of Modern Taxonomy. Under binomial nomenclature, every organism is given a scientific name consisting of two words—

• First word — Genus name

• Second word — Species name

Therefore, Reason (R) is also true.

Important rules of binomial nomenclature—

• Scientific names are generally written in Latin language.

• The first letter of the genus name is written in capital form.

• The first letter of the species name is written in small form.

• In printed form, scientific names are written in italics.

Examples—

• Human — Homo sapiens

• Mango — Mangifera indica

• Lion — Panthera leo

Binomial nomenclature helps in—

• Uniform identification of organisms throughout the world

• Easy scientific communication

• Convenient classification and study of organisms

Answer: D

Ribosomes are extremely important cell organelles that mainly perform the function of protein synthesis. They are also known as the “protein factories” of the cell. Ribosomes are found in all living cells — both prokaryotic and eukaryotic.

Proteins are formed on ribosomes by the joining of amino acids. Most enzymes produced in cells are protein in nature. Therefore, enzyme formation also indirectly takes place through ribosomes. Hence, Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

The formation of fats or lipids mainly occurs in the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER). Therefore, Statement (III) is incorrect.

The formation of starch in plants occurs during the process of photosynthesis. This function is mainly performed in chloroplasts, which are plastids. Therefore, Statement (IV) is also incorrect.

Important features of ribosomes—

• Ribosomes are non-membranous organelles.

• They were discovered by George Palade, so they are sometimes called “Palade Particles.”

• They may be found freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER).

• 70S ribosomes are found in prokaryotic cells, while 80S ribosomes are found in eukaryotic cells.

• Mitochondria and chloroplasts also possess their own ribosomes.

________________________________________

Answer: C

In plants, tendrils are thin, thread-like, and coiled structures that help plants climb and hold support. They are mainly found in climbing plants such as—

• Pea

• Grapevine

• Bottle gourd

• Pumpkin

• Cucumber

Tendrils are sensitive to touch stimulus. When they come in contact with a support, they begin to coil around it. This response of plants is called Thigmotropism. Therefore, the correct answer is Touch Stimulus.

In thigmotropism, a plant part grows in a particular direction due to touch. The coiling of tendrils around a support helps the plant climb higher and receive more sunlight.

This process is influenced by the plant growth hormone Auxin. When a tendril touches an object, auxin gets distributed unevenly, causing cells on one side to grow more rapidly. As a result, the tendril bends and coils around the support.

Major tropic movements in plants—

• Phototropism — Response to light

• Geotropism — Response to gravity

• Hydrotropism — Response to water

• Chemotropism — Response to chemicals

• Thigmotropism — Response to touch

These responses help plants adapt to their environment and support their growth and development.

________________________________________

Answer: A

Given—

• Cost Price (CP) = ₹8400

• Selling Price (SP) = ₹6384

Since the selling price is less than the cost price, there is a loss.

Loss = Cost Price − Selling Price

= 8400 − 6384

= ₹2016

Now,

Loss Percentage = (Loss / Cost Price) × 100

= (2016 / 8400) × 100

= 24%

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Answer: B

Given—

• Height of cone (h) = 12 cm

• Slant height (l) = 13 cm

Using Pythagoras theorem—

l² = r² + h²

13² = r² + 12²

169 = r² + 144

r² = 25

r = 5 cm

So, the radius of both the cone and hemisphere is 5 cm.

Now,

Volume of cone

= (1/3)πr²h

= (1/3) × π × 5² × 12

= (1/3) × π × 25 × 12

= 100π cm³

Volume of hemisphere

= (2/3)πr³

= (2/3) × π × 5³

= (2/3) × π × 125

= 250π/3 cm³

Now total volume—

= 100π + 250π/3

= (300π + 250π)/3

= 550π/3 cm³

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Answer: A

• a. Confidence Building Measures → ii. A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis :

Under this, two or more countries share information regarding military plans, troop positions, and defence matters in order to prevent misunderstandings and avoid sudden conflicts or wars.

• b. Arms Control → iv. Controls the acquisition or development of weapons :

Under arms control, countries mutually agree to place rules and limitations on the production, testing, and use of certain weapons. The Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty is an example of this.

• c. Alliance (Coalition) → iii. A coalition of nations formed for defence or resistance :

It refers to an organization of countries formed for collective security in order to resist or defend against external threats or military attacks. NATO is a major example.

• d. Disarmament → i. Renunciation of certain types of weapons :

Disarmament means eliminating or giving up weapons that are dangerous for humanity. The Biological Weapons Convention and the Chemical Weapons Convention are important examples.

________________________________________

Answer: A

• Majoritarianism is a political system or ideology in which the majority community dominates governance and policymaking on the basis of numerical strength. In such systems, there is often a possibility of neglecting minority interests. The policy of Sinhala majoritarianism in Sri Lanka is considered a major example, where inequality against the Tamil community emerged.

• Power Sharing is an important principle of democracy in which power is distributed among different social, linguistic, religious, and regional groups to ensure participation of all sections of society. Its aim is to reduce social conflicts and maintain political stability.

• Power sharing appears in several forms—

• Division of power among organs of government

• Federal distribution of power between Centre and States

• Political participation of different social groups

• Balance among political parties and pressure groups

• Belgium is considered a successful example of power sharing, where constitutional power balance was established between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities.

________________________________________

Answer: D

India follows a parliamentary democratic system, where government formation is based on majority support in the legislature. The political party or alliance that secures a majority in the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly claims the right to form the government.

• Statement I is incorrect because independent candidates generally do not form governments on their own. They may support a government, but an organized majority is necessary for government formation.

• Statement II is incorrect because the Constitution does not explicitly reserve government formation only for political parties, although in practice governments are formed by political parties or alliances.

• Statement III appears partially correct, but it is incomplete because being elected alone is not sufficient; majority support is also required.

• Statement IV is correct because in a parliamentary system, the government is formed by the political party or coalition that commands majority support in the legislature. The appointment of the Prime Minister or Chief Minister is also based on this principle.

Under the Indian Constitution, Article 75 provides for the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha at the Centre, while Article 164 provides a similar arrangement in the States with respect to the Legislative Assembly. Hence, confidence and majority support in the House are essential for government formation.

________________________________________

Answer: C

• Assertion (A) is true because power sharing provides different social, linguistic, religious, and regional groups an opportunity to participate in governance. This reduces dissatisfaction and conflict while maintaining political stability.

• Reason (R) is also true because in a power-sharing arrangement, all major groups are included in the decision-making process. This reduces the dominance of any one community and ensures representation for minority groups. Such inclusiveness helps in reducing social conflict.

• Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A) because participation and representation of social groups form the basis for preventing conflict.

Belgium is considered a major example of successful power sharing, where constitutional balance between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities reduced social conflict. In contrast, Sri Lanka experienced prolonged conflict between the Sinhala and Tamil communities due to majoritarian policies.

________________________________________

Answer: A

• (iv) Primary Cause :

First, the basic reason for geothermal energy is established. The temperature inside the Earth increases continuously with depth, which is known as the Geothermal Gradient. Due to this, enormous heat exists inside the Earth.

• (ii) Heating of Groundwater :

In regions where the geothermal gradient is high, underground water comes into contact with hot rocks and absorbs heat, becoming extremely hot.

• (i) Conversion into Steam :

When this highly heated water rises toward the Earth’s surface, pressure decreases and it changes into steam.

• (iii) Generation of Electricity :

Finally, this steam is used to rotate turbines. The turbines are connected to generators, which produce electrical energy.

Geothermal energy is considered an important source of renewable energy because it causes less pollution and remains available for a long period.

In India, Puga Valley (Ladakh), Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh), and Tattapani (Chhattisgarh) are major potential geothermal energy regions.

Answer: A

The most suitable soil for cotton cultivation is Black Soil (Regur Soil). The most important characteristic of this soil is its high moisture-retaining capacity. Therefore, Hint i is the most useful in identifying the ideal soil for cotton cultivation.

Black soil is mainly formed by the weathering of basalt rocks and is widely found in the Deccan Trap region. It contains a high amount of lime, magnesium, iron, and potash, while nitrogen and phosphorus are relatively less.

This soil retains moisture for a long time after rainfall, ensuring a continuous supply of water to cotton crops. When dry, it develops wide cracks that improve aeration in the soil. Due to this property, it is also called “Self-Ploughing Soil.”

• Hint ii refers to yellow soil, which appears yellow because of hydration.

• Hint iii is related to alluvial soil, where terms like kankar and bhangar are used. Bhangar refers to old alluvial soil containing calcareous nodules.

• Hint iv describes loamy soil, which is generally good for agriculture but is not specifically identified with cotton cultivation.

In India, black soil is mainly found in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.

________________________________________

Answer: C

• a. Cirrus (Ci), Cirrocumulus (Cc), Cirrostratus (Cs) → III. Thin, white, icy, no rainfall :

These are high-level clouds formed at great heights. They mainly consist of ice crystals. They appear thin, white, and feathery and generally do not produce rainfall.

• b. Altocumulus (Ac), Altostratus (As) → I. Layered or fluffy, made of liquid water :

These are middle-level clouds containing water droplets. They appear layered or patchy in structure.

• c. Stratus (St), Stratocumulus (Sc), Nimbostratus (Ns) → II. Gloomy sky, light rain, generally overcast :

These are low-level clouds that cover the sky and bring light rain or drizzle. Nimbostratus clouds especially cause continuous rainfall.

• d. Cumulus (Cu), Cumulonimbus → IV. Tall, narrow, fluffy :

These are clouds with vertical development. Cumulonimbus clouds are associated with thunder, lightning, and heavy rainfall and are often called Thunder Clouds.

Clouds are classified mainly on the basis of their height, shape, and structure. Luke Howard is regarded as the father of the modern cloud classification system.

________________________________________

Answer: D

• a. Tributaries originating from a peak flow downward following the slope and drain water in all directions. (Correct)

A Radial Drainage Pattern develops when rivers originate from a central elevated region such as a dome, volcanic cone, or plateau and flow outward in all directions following the slope. It resembles the spokes of a wheel.

• b. Rivers originating from the Amarkantak Plateau provide a good example of radial drainage pattern. (Correct)

The Amarkantak Plateau is a major example of radial drainage in India. Rivers flow in different directions from this plateau—

• Narmada River flows westward

• Son River flows northward

• Tributaries of the Mahanadi River flow eastward and southeastward

• c. Radial drainage patterns are also found in the Nilgiri Hills. (Correct)

The Nilgiri Hills also form a central elevated region. Rivers such as Bhavani, Moyar, and Kabini flow in different directions, creating a radial drainage pattern.

________________________________________

Answer: D

Descending order means arranging from the largest area to the smallest area. The approximate areas of the given wetlands are as follows—

• Sundarban — about 4230 sq km

It is located in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region of West Bengal and is the largest mangrove forest in the world. It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site and famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger.

• Vembanad Wetland System — about 2033 sq km

It is the largest wetland system in Kerala, known for backwater tourism, fisheries, and the Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary. It is also a Ramsar Site.

• Chilika Lake — about 1165 sq km

It is Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon, famous for migratory birds and Irrawaddy dolphins. It is among India’s earliest Ramsar Sites.

• Sambhar Lake — about 230 sq km

It is India’s largest inland saltwater lake and is important for salt production and flamingo habitat.

• Ashtamudi Wetland — about 61 sq km

Located in Kollam district of Kerala, it is a major backwater estuary. The word “Ashtamudi” means “eight-branched lake.”

Thus, the correct descending order is—

Sundarban > Vembanad > Chilika > Sambhar > Ashtamudi

Therefore:

e → a → b → d → c

Note:

This exact combination was not available in the original options. The corrected option was added by Examdhara based on actual area data.